ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
2. Individual nutrients are characterized by their ability to:
- A. work independently.
- B. fulfill specific metabolic roles.
- C. influence weight loss.
- D. improve mental status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'fulfill specific metabolic roles.' Nutrients play essential roles in specific metabolic processes in the body such as energy production, tissue repair, and growth. Choice A, 'work independently,' is incorrect as nutrients often work synergistically rather than alone. Choice C, 'influence weight loss,' is incorrect as while some nutrients may support weight loss indirectly through metabolic processes, it is not their primary characteristic. Choice D, 'improve mental status,' is also incorrect as while some nutrients are important for brain health, their primary role is not specifically to improve mental status.
3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.
4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Reduce mucus production
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved breathing, making it an essential treatment in managing COPD symptoms.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
- A. Increased speech
- B. Lack of sleep
- C. Agitation
- D. Poor concentration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is lack of sleep (choice B). In acute mania, lack of sleep can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and pose serious risks to the client's well-being. Addressing the client's sleep deprivation is a priority as it can impact their overall health and recovery. Increased speech (choice A) and agitation (choice C) are common in acute mania but do not pose immediate physical risks like lack of sleep. Poor concentration (choice D) is also a symptom of acute mania but addressing sleep deprivation takes precedence due to its severe consequences.
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