ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer methylergonovine
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.
2. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?
- A. Wipe from front to back after urination
- B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
- C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
- D. Wear loose-fitting underwear
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?
- A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
- B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
- C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
- D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.
4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Temperature
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.â€
- B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.â€
- C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.â€
- D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.â€
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.
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