Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer methylergonovine
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

2. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.

3. A client newly prescribed sertraline is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I should take this medication with meals.
• B. I might have trouble sleeping when I start this medication.
• C. I should avoid drinking orange juice.
• D. I will feel better immediately after starting the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'I might have trouble sleeping when I start this medication,' indicates understanding because insomnia is a common side effect of sertraline, especially when initiating the medication. This statement shows the client comprehends a potential adverse effect and is prepared for it. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking sertraline with or without meals does not significantly affect its efficacy. There is no specific contraindication about drinking orange juice while on sertraline. Feeling better immediately after starting the medication is unlikely as sertraline usually takes some time to exert its therapeutic effects.

4. A nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after a vaginal delivery and notes that the client's uterus is boggy and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Assist the client to void
• B. Massage the uterus
• C. Administer oxytocin
• D. Encourage breastfeeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A boggy and displaced uterus is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting effectively. The priority intervention is to assist the client to void. By emptying the bladder, the uterus can return to midline and become firm. Massaging the uterus or administering oxytocin may be necessary but should come after addressing the bladder distention. Encouraging breastfeeding is important for uterine contraction but is not the priority in this situation.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. 90-degree angle
• B. 60-degree angle
• C. 75-degree angle
• D. 45-degree angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 90-degree angle. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections because it is away from major nerves and blood vessels. Administering the injection at a 90-degree angle ensures that the medication reaches deep into the muscle tissue, allowing for proper absorption of the drug. Choice B, 60-degree angle, is incorrect as it is not the recommended angle for the ventrogluteal site. Choice C, 75-degree angle, and Choice D, 45-degree angle, are also incorrect as they are not the appropriate angles for administering an intramuscular injection using the ventrogluteal site.

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