ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A patient with chronic kidney disease reports feeling light-headed after taking their medication. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Take the medication at bedtime
- C. Stand up slowly to prevent dizziness
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are prone to orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness. To prevent this, the nurse should instruct the patient to stand up slowly. Options A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of orthostatic hypotension and dizziness in this scenario.
2. A client has been prescribed phenytoin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to prevent toxicity?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Complete blood count
- C. Serum phenytoin levels
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Serum phenytoin levels should be regularly monitored to prevent toxicity because the therapeutic range is narrow. Monitoring blood pressure (choice A), complete blood count (choice B), and liver function tests (choice D) are not directly related to preventing phenytoin toxicity.
3. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
- B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.
4. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. Sudden weight loss
- B. Regular contractions
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Vaginal spotting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.
5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Encourage high-calorie meals
- B. Administer intravenous fluids
- C. Provide frequent small meals
- D. Limit fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.
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