Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

• A. Increased urinary output
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

2. A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who is postpartum. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wash your nipples with soap after each feeding.
• B. Place your baby to your breast for 5 minutes every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.
• D. Give your newborn 30 mL of water between feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.' Six or more wet diapers per day is an indicator that the newborn is receiving adequate breast milk, making this an important part of breastfeeding education. Choice A is incorrect because washing nipples with soap after each feeding can lead to dryness and cracking. Choice B is incorrect as babies should nurse on demand rather than on a strict schedule of 5 minutes every 4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as giving water to a newborn between feedings is not recommended and can interfere with breastfeeding.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.

4. A client with GERD is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should take my medicine with orange juice.”
• B. “Having a bedtime snack will prevent heartburn.”
• C. “I will lie down after meals.”
• D. “I will limit activities that require bending at the waist.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting activities that require bending at the waist can help prevent episodes of reflux in clients with GERD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking medicine with orange juice may not be appropriate as citrus juices can aggravate GERD. Having a bedtime snack can exacerbate heartburn by increasing stomach acid production, and lying down after meals can worsen symptoms of GERD by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

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