ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?
- A. Increased urinary output
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?
- A. Magnesium sulfate
- B. Oxytocin
- C. Misoprostol
- D. Nifedipine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform a routine abdominal assessment for a client. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Perform palpation before auscultation
- B. Perform percussion before auscultation
- C. Perform palpation after auscultation
- D. Perform inspection after auscultation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform palpation after auscultation. When conducting an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation. Inspecting the abdomen allows the nurse to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by listening for bowel sounds during auscultation. Percussion helps assess the density of abdominal contents before palpation for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because palpation should always come last in the sequence of an abdominal assessment.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of pantoprazole. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It should be taken on an empty stomach
- B. It reduces stomach acid production
- C. It can cause headache
- D. It should not be used with other antacids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct information to include when teaching a client about pantoprazole is that it can cause headaches. Option A is incorrect because pantoprazole is usually taken before meals. Option B is not necessary information for the client to know. Option D is not directly related to the side effects of pantoprazole.
5. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?
- A. It is a cure for Parkinson's disease
- B. Monitor for dyskinesia
- C. It can be taken at any time
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.
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