Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

• A. Increased urinary output
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.

3. A client with type 1 DM is being taught about hypoglycemia by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “Exercise decreases the risk of hypoglycemia.”
• B. “I should skip my insulin if I don't eat.”
• C. “I can drink 4 oz of regular soda if my blood sugar is low.”
• D. “Oral diabetic medications do not lead to hypoglycemia; only insulin does.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should have a quick-acting source of 15 g of carbohydrates to treat hypoglycemic episodes, such as 4 oz of regular soda. Choice A is incorrect because while exercise can help manage blood sugar levels, it can also increase the risk of hypoglycemia if not properly managed. Choice B is incorrect as skipping insulin when not eating can lead to hyperglycemia, not prevent hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect because certain oral diabetic medications can indeed cause hypoglycemia, not just insulin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to a decrease in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoprolol typically does not cause bradycardia, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as its primary adverse effects.

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