a nurse is preparing to administer iv furosemide which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administering, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. Controlled substances, such as narcotic medications, must be properly disposed of to prevent misuse or diversion. Having another nurse witness the disposal ensures accountability and follows proper protocols. Storing the unused medication for later use (Choice A) is unsafe and could lead to misuse. Discarding the medication in a regular trash bin (Choice B) is inappropriate as it does not ensure proper disposal of a controlled substance. Reporting the unused portion to the provider (Choice D) is not the immediate action needed for proper medication disposal.

3. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

4. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in the second trimester of pregnancy and asks how to treat constipation. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking hot water with lemon juice in the morning is a natural and safe way to stimulate bowel movements and relieve constipation during pregnancy. Option A is incorrect as vitamins and supplements should not be decreased without consulting a healthcare provider, especially during pregnancy. Option B is inadequate as the recommended daily fiber intake during pregnancy is higher than 15g. Option C, while important for overall health, does not directly address constipation relief in pregnancy.

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