a nurse is preparing to administer iv furosemide which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Poor problem-solving ability is a common cognitive symptom of schizophrenia. It affects the client's ability to think clearly and make decisions. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) is not a typical assessment finding in schizophrenia. Inability to identify common objects (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like dementia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances (Choice D) is characteristic of somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia.

3. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.

4. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

5. When resolving a conflict, which statement made by the charge nurse is an example of smoothing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it exemplifies smoothing, a conflict resolution strategy where the charge nurse reassures the staff nurse of their capabilities. Choice B offers to take over the assignment, which is more of a compromising strategy. Choice C suggests switching assignments, which aligns with compromising rather than smoothing. Choice D proposes a discussion in a private setting, indicating a collaborating approach rather than smoothing.

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