a nurse is preparing to administer iv furosemide which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who is receiving oxytocin. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing contractions every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take in this situation is to stop the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress by compromising oxygen supply. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions, allowing for better fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, but stopping the oxytocin is the priority. Increasing IV fluid rate (Choice C) is not the appropriate action in response to hyperstimulation. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may eventually be necessary, the immediate action should be to address the hyperstimulation by stopping the oxytocin infusion.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.

5. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

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