a nurse is preparing to administer iv furosemide which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

2. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

3. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.

5. A nurse is admitted to a psychiatric unit and fails to follow her medication regimen. What does this behavior indicate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Lack of health literacy.' The nurse's inability to follow the medication regimen suggests she may lack health literacy, meaning she may not fully understand how to manage her own health care. Choice A, 'Early cognitive impairment,' is not supported by the information provided in the question as there is no mention of cognitive decline. Choice B, 'Lack of motivation,' is less likely as the behavior is more indicative of a knowledge deficit rather than a lack of drive. Choice D, 'Worsening health state,' is also less likely as the behavior described does not directly imply a worsening health condition but rather a misunderstanding or lack of knowledge on managing health.

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