ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?
- A. Increased urinary output
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.
2. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?
- A. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- B. Call for help
- C. Protect the client's head
- D. Restrain the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial in managing the client's safety during a seizure. Calling for help is important but ensuring the client's immediate safety by positioning them correctly takes precedence. Protecting the client's head can be done concurrently while positioning the client. Restraint is not appropriate during a seizure as it can lead to injuries and complications.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
- B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
- C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
- D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.
4. A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is disoriented and has a history of falls. What actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the bed in the lowest position, instruct the patient to remain in bed, ensure the bedside table is within reach.
- B. Instruct the patient to use the call light, apply an ambulation alarm to the patient’s leg, check on the patient hourly.
- C. Assign a sitter to monitor the patient, raise the bed rails, provide the patient with a call button.
- D. Check on the patient every two hours, provide verbal reminders to use the call light, lock the bed wheels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct actions for the nurse to take involve ensuring patient safety and fall prevention measures. Choice B is the correct answer because instructing the patient to use the call light allows them to signal for help, applying an ambulation alarm helps detect movement, and checking on the patient hourly increases monitoring frequency. These actions are essential for preventing falls in a disoriented patient with a history of falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A does not provide adequate monitoring or fall prevention measures, C relies solely on assigning a sitter without utilizing technological aids, and D lacks continuous monitoring and specific fall prevention strategies.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?
- A. Client has a low-grade fever
- B. Client is allergic to eggs
- C. Client had recent surgery
- D. Client is on corticosteroid therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.
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