ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
2. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?
- A. When the client is hypotensive
- B. When the client is irritable
- C. When the client is flushed
- D. When the client is bradycardic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.
3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to bear down
- B. Apply the external fetal monitor
- C. Provide the client with fluids
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.
4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
5. Which term specifically refers to positive actions taken to help others?
- A. Beneficence
- B. Justice
- C. Autonomy
- D. Non-maleficence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Beneficence.' Beneficence is the ethical principle that involves taking positive actions to help others. Choice B, 'Justice,' pertains to fairness and equity in treatment, not specifically positive actions. Choice C, 'Autonomy,' relates to respecting individuals' rights to make their own decisions, not necessarily taking actions to help others. Choice D, 'Non-maleficence,' focuses on the obligation to avoid causing harm rather than actively helping others.
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