Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Heart rate 60/min
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.

3. What are the risk factors for stroke, and how can it be prevented?

• A. High cholesterol and hypertension; prevent with regular exercise
• B. Obesity and smoking; prevent with medication and weight loss
• C. Diabetes and alcohol consumption; prevent with regular checkups
• D. Lack of exercise and poor diet; prevent with lifestyle changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. High cholesterol and hypertension are significant risk factors for stroke. Regular exercise is an effective way to prevent stroke by managing these risk factors. Choice B is incorrect as while obesity and smoking are risk factors, preventing stroke through medication and weight loss is not the primary method. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes and alcohol consumption are risk factors, but preventing stroke through regular checkups is not as direct as managing cholesterol and hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as lack of exercise and a poor diet are indeed risk factors, but the prevention of stroke through lifestyle changes needs to specifically address high cholesterol and hypertension.

4. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?

• A. Paradoxical excitement
• B. Headache
• C. Slowing of reflexes
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

5. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase the intake of potassium
• B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
• C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

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