ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate elixir. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication before meals
- B. I will mix this medication with water
- C. I will take this medication once a week
- D. I will rinse my mouth after taking this medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rinsing the mouth is essential to prevent staining and irritation caused by ferrous sulfate elixir. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking ferrous sulfate elixir before meals (Choice A) is not necessary. Mixing it with water (Choice B) is not recommended as it may alter the medication's effectiveness. Taking the medication once a week (Choice C) is incorrect as ferrous sulfate is usually prescribed daily or as directed by a healthcare provider.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Assess for bladder distention after 6 hours
- B. Encourage the client to use a bedpan in the supine position
- C. Restrict the client's intake of oral fluids
- D. Pour warm water over the client's perineum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.
4. Following delivery, the nurse places the newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Which of the following is this action used to prevent?
- A. Cold stress
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Dehydration
- D. Hypoxia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the newborn under a radiant heat warmer is used to prevent cold stress. Cold stress in newborns can lead to increased oxygen consumption and energy expenditure as the body tries to maintain its temperature, potentially resulting in hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis if not addressed. The radiant warmer helps maintain the infant's body temperature, reducing the risk of cold stress and its complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of using a radiant warmer in this scenario is to prevent cold stress specifically, not hyperthermia, dehydration, or hypoxia.
5. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?
- A. Assess facial drooping
- B. Monitor speech difficulties
- C. Evaluate arm weakness
- D. Check for time of onset of symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99