Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client using home oxygen. What is the most important safety measure?

• A. Store oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use
• B. Ensure that oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources
• C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
• D. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure that oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources. This is the most important safety measure to prevent accidents related to home oxygen use. Storing oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use (choice A) is not recommended as they should be stored in a well-ventilated area. Allowing family members to smoke in designated areas (choice C) poses a significant fire hazard. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (choice D) is not a safety measure related to oxygen use.

3. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia
• B. Fever, nausea, and vomiting
• C. Cough, cyanosis, and fatigue
• D. Abdominal pain and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.

4. A client is being taught about prescribed asthma medications. Which of the following medications should the client use for treatment of an acute asthma attack?

• A. Beclomethasone
• B. Salmeterol
• C. Albuterol
• D. Montelukast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is the correct choice for treating acute asthma attacks because it is a short-acting bronchodilator that provides quick relief by relaxing the muscles in the airways. Beclomethasone (choice A) and Salmeterol (choice B) are long-acting medications used for controlling and preventing asthma symptoms but are not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Montelukast (choice D) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for asthma maintenance therapy and not for acute asthma attacks.

5. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

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