a nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania which of the following findings is the nurses priori
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lack of sleep.' In a client experiencing acute mania due to bipolar disorder, lack of sleep is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Sleep deprivation can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and increase the risk of further complications. Pressured speech, increased appetite, and mood swings are also common in acute mania, but addressing the lack of sleep takes precedence due to its significant impact on the client's well-being and recovery.

2. While performing assessments on newborns in the nursery, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 70 in a two-day old newborn is above the normal range and should be reported to the provider. This finding may indicate respiratory distress or another underlying issue that needs prompt attention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits for newborns and do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient receiving diuretic therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed. Patients on diuretic therapy are at risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes and administering potassium as needed are crucial nursing interventions to prevent imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because restricting fluid intake and providing a low-sodium diet are not typically indicated for patients on diuretic therapy. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral fluids and increasing dietary potassium can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances in patients on diuretics. Choice D is incorrect as providing high-sodium foods would worsen electrolyte balance issues in patients on diuretic therapy.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.

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