Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a long-term care facility is serving on the ethics committee, which is addressing a client care dilemma. Which of the following strategies will facilitate resolving the dilemma?

• A. Ensure client autonomy only
• B. Consider only medical benefits
• C. Ensure clear communication among the health care team
• D. Identify possible solutions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In resolving ethical dilemmas, it is essential to identify possible solutions to address the client care dilemma effectively. Option A, 'Ensure client autonomy only,' is not comprehensive enough to resolve complex ethical issues. Option B, 'Consider only medical benefits,' overlooks other important factors beyond medical benefits that are involved in ethical decision-making. Option C, 'Ensure clear communication among the health care team,' is important but may not be sufficient on its own to resolve the ethical dilemma. Therefore, the most effective strategy among the given options is to identify possible solutions to navigate through the ethical dilemma.

2. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client?

• A. Facilitate the client in returning to usual activities of daily living
• B. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations
• C. Assist the client in preparing for a peaceful and dignified death
• D. Delay the progression of the disease process in the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining optimal function within the client's limitations is the most realistic and appropriate nursing goal when caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. This goal focuses on maximizing the client's abilities and quality of life while acknowledging the impact of the disease. Option A is less realistic as returning to usual activities may not always be achievable in the case of Parkinson's disease. Option C is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current condition and care needs. Option D is less realistic as Parkinson's disease is progressive, and delaying its progression may not be entirely feasible.

3. What intervention is key when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer antipsychotic medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Increase environmental stimulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, dehydration, or metabolic imbalances. Administering antipsychotic medications (Choice A) may worsen delirium and should be avoided unless necessary for specific indications. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is beneficial as it can help reduce agitation and confusion in individuals with delirium. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate symptoms in delirious patients. Therefore, the priority should be on identifying and addressing reversible causes to effectively manage delirium.

4. What are the early signs of sepsis in a patient?

• A. Increased heart rate and fever
• B. Low blood pressure and confusion
• C. Elevated blood sugar and sweating
• D. Increased urine output and abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. These are early signs of sepsis and indicate a systemic infection. It is crucial to identify these signs promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Choice B is incorrect because low blood pressure and confusion are more indicative of severe sepsis or septic shock rather than early signs. Choice C is incorrect as elevated blood sugar and sweating are not typical early signs of sepsis. Choice D is also incorrect as increased urine output and abdominal pain are not early signs of sepsis.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

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