Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?

• A. Table salt
• B. Egg yolks
• C. White wine
• D. Oranges

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?

• A. Heart disease
• B. Cervical dilation of 2 cm
• C. Gestational age of 34 weeks
• D. Allergy to penicillin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart disease. Terbutaline is contraindicated in clients with heart disease because it can lead to tachycardia and other cardiac complications due to its beta-agonist properties. Choice B, cervical dilation of 2 cm, is not a contraindication for terbutaline administration in preterm labor. Choice C, gestational age of 34 weeks, does not contraindicate the use of terbutaline for preterm labor. Choice D, allergy to penicillin, is not related to the contraindications of terbutaline.

3. In the nursing process, the evaluation phase is used to determine:

• A. Value of the nursing intervention
• B. Accuracy of problem identification
• C. Quality of the plan of care
• D. Degree of outcome achievement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The evaluation phase of the nursing process is used to determine the degree of outcome achievement. It assesses whether the goals and outcomes set during the planning phase were met. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the worth of the intervention rather than the achievement of outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to the assessment phase where problems are identified. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the planning phase where the care plan is developed, not evaluated.

4. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an antihistamine prior to transfusion.
• B. Check the client’s vital signs.
• C. Verify the client’s identification with another nurse.
• D. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client is to verify the client’s identification with another nurse. This is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct client, minimizing the risk of a transfusion reaction. Administering an antihistamine prior to transfusion (Choice A) is not the first priority and is not a standard practice. While checking the client’s vital signs (Choice B) is important, verifying the client’s identification takes precedence to prevent a critical error. Priming the IV tubing with normal saline (Choice D) is a necessary step in the process but should occur after verifying the client's identity.

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