Nursing Elites

1. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Increased blood pressure
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.

2. A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?

• A. Client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign
• B. Client with Clostridium difficile and acute diarrhea
• C. Client with acute kidney injury and low urine specific gravity
• D. Client with oral cancer and reports a sore on his gums

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A positive Trousseau's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications like tetany or laryngospasm, making it the highest priority. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential complications of severe hypocalcemia seen in a client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and a positive Trousseau's sign.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post-maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.

4. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

Similar Questions