Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. APTT levels
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

• A. Cornbread
• B. Mashed potatoes
• C. Lentils
• D. Tortillas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

3. A charge nurse is making assignments for the upcoming shift. What assignment should the charge nurse give to an LPN?

• A. A client who requires complex medication management
• B. A client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
• C. A client needing assessment of a new diagnosis
• D. A client requiring a nursing care plan update

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assignment for an LPN would be a client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). This choice is appropriate because it involves monitoring the client's condition, providing basic care, and assisting with activities of daily living, which align with the scope of practice for LPNs. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that are more complex and require a higher level of nursing education and training, making them less suitable for an LPN.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.

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