ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed levetiracetam. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine. Levetiracetam requires monitoring of renal function, specifically serum creatinine levels, as it is primarily eliminated by the kidneys. Monitoring liver function (Choice A) is not necessary for levetiracetam. Blood glucose levels (Choice B) are typically not affected by levetiracetam. While monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important in general patient care, it is not specifically required for clients prescribed levetiracetam.
2. A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Nausea
- C. Weight gain
- D. Regular bowel movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.
3. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?
- A. Glasgow scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray
- B. Administer an antiemetic
- C. Inform the client's provider
- D. Check the client's apical pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's apical pulse first. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and assessing the client's heart rate is crucial in this situation. Administering an antiemetic or encouraging the client to eat should come after ensuring the client's safety. While informing the provider is important, the immediate concern is to assess for potential digoxin toxicity by checking the client's apical pulse.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 10 mg
- B. 20 mg
- C. 30 mg
- D. 40 mg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.
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