Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. BUN 35 mg/dL
• B. Hgb 15 g/dL
• C. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
• D. Hct 37%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to focus on a distant object.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the client’s eyes.
• C. Recommend alternating eye patches during the day.
• D. Administer artificial tears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as increasing the client's risk of falling?

• A. Normal gait
• B. Recent history of dizziness
• C. 20/20 vision
• D. Takes a multivitamin daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recent history of dizziness. A recent history of dizziness significantly increases the risk of falling, as dizziness can impair balance and coordination. Having a normal gait (choice A) and 20/20 vision (choice C) are not factors that directly increase the risk of falling. Taking a multivitamin daily (choice D) does not inherently contribute to an increased risk of falling unless it causes dizziness as a side effect, which is not specified in the question.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?

• A. Encourage high-calorie meals
• B. Administer intravenous fluids
• C. Provide frequent small meals
• D. Limit fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.

Similar Questions