ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
2. A nurse is providing education on the use of corticosteroids. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
- B. Avoid abrupt discontinuation
- C. Long-term use may have risks
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of hyperglycemia when educating on corticosteroids. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels, making it essential to watch for hyperglycemia, especially in diabetic patients. Choice B is incorrect because corticosteroids should not be abruptly stopped due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as corticosteroids are associated with various adverse effects, making long-term use risky. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not typically a primary concern directly related to corticosteroid use.
3. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices should the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. A baked potato
- B. A chicken breast
- C. A banana
- D. A cup of orange juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in potassium, making it a safe option for clients with chronic kidney disease who need to limit their potassium intake. Foods like bananas and orange juice are high in potassium, which should be avoided or limited by individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent further kidney damage.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and has an NG tube for suction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Mix medications with enteral feedings.
- B. Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration.
- C. Insert medications directly into the NG tube without dilution.
- D. Connect the NG tube to continuous suction after medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications to a client with an NG tube for suction who is NPO is to clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration. This is done to allow for proper absorption of the medications before resuming suction. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be mixed with enteral feedings as it may affect the drug's effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as medications should not be inserted directly into the NG tube without dilution, as this can cause clogging or affect the tube. Choice D is incorrect because connecting the NG tube to continuous suction after medication administration can interfere with the absorption of the medications.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?
- A. Cottage cheese
- B. Tuna salad
- C. Rice with black beans
- D. Three-egg omelet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
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