Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse in an urgent-care clinic is collecting admission history from a client who is 16 weeks gestation and has bacterial vaginosis. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clinical findings are associated with this infection?

• A. Frequency and dysuria
• B. Profuse milky white discharge
• C. Hematuria
• D. Low-grade fever

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis often presents with a profuse, milky white discharge and a characteristic fishy odor, without significant inflammation, hematuria, or fever. Choice A, frequency, and dysuria are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, hematuria, is associated with conditions like urinary tract infections or kidney problems. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a typical symptom of bacterial vaginosis.

3. A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

• A. Gravida 3, Para 2
• B. Gravida 3, Para 3
• C. Gravida 4, Para 2
• D. Gravida 4, Para 3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

5. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

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