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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
2. A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to focus on a distant object.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the client’s eyes.
- C. Recommend alternating eye patches during the day.
- D. Administer artificial tears.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.
3. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for low blood pressure
- B. It can cause bradycardia
- C. Take it with calcium supplements
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.
4. A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which of the following types of immunity?
- A. Innate immunity
- B. Passive immunity
- C. Acquired immunity
- D. Natural immunity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Immunizations provide acquired immunity. They work by introducing antigens into the body, which triggers the immune system to produce antibodies specific to that antigen. Choice A, 'Innate immunity,' refers to the natural defense mechanisms an organism is born with and does not involve immunizations. Choice B, 'Passive immunity,' is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies and does not involve immunizations. Choice D, 'Natural immunity,' is a general term that encompasses all immunity that is not acquired through deliberate immunization or passive transfer of antibodies.
5. A client has a stool culture positive for C. difficile. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
- B. Use alcohol-based hand rub after providing care
- C. Wear a face shield before entering the room
- D. Place the client in a private room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with a C. difficile infection, it is essential to isolate them in a private room to prevent the spread of spores through contact with surfaces. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for C. difficile. Using alcohol-based hand rub (Choice B) and wearing a face shield (Choice C) are important infection control measures but are not specific to the isolation requirements for C. difficile.
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