ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Mood changes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
3. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.
4. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. INR levels
- B. APTT levels
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.
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