Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be

• A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
• B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
• C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
• D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.

2. What intervention is essential for a client with dehydration?

• A. Monitor electrolyte levels regularly
• B. Administer oral rehydration solutions
• C. Increase fluid intake to maintain hydration
• D. Administer intravenous fluids to treat dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oral rehydration solutions is essential for a client with dehydration as it helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes directly through the oral route. Monitoring electrolyte levels regularly (Choice A) is important but not as essential as providing immediate rehydration. Increasing fluid intake to maintain hydration (Choice C) may not be sufficient for a client already dehydrated and needing rapid replenishment. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is a more invasive intervention typically reserved for severe cases of dehydration or when the client cannot tolerate oral fluids.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
• B. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• C. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
• D. Daily weight increase of 0.45 kg (1 lb)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden weight increase may indicate fluid retention, a complication of TPN therapy that should be reported. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to TPN therapy complications. A blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is normal, a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm³ is within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is also normal.

5. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

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