Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be

• A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
• B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
• C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
• D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Administer anticoagulants and monitor for bleeding
• B. Elevate the limb and administer pain relief
• C. Restrict mobility and apply warm compress
• D. Administer IV fluids and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected DVT management involves administering anticoagulants to prevent clot growth and monitoring for signs of bleeding. Elevating the limb and administering pain relief (Choice B) may help alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of preventing clot progression. Restricting mobility and applying warm compress (Choice C) could potentially dislodge the clot and worsen the condition. Administering IV fluids and providing bed rest (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing DVT.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess for bladder distention after 6 hours
• B. Encourage the client to use a bedpan in the supine position
• C. Restrict the client's intake of oral fluids
• D. Pour warm water over the client's perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.

4. A client with a sprained right ankle is learning to walk with a cane. What action demonstrates effective teaching?

• A. The client advances the cane 18 inches in front of the foot
• B. The client holds the cane in the left hand
• C. The client advances the cane and the right leg simultaneously
• D. The client holds the cane with the elbow flexed at 60°

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has a sprained right ankle, they should hold the cane in the opposite hand (left hand) to the affected leg for better support and balance. This positioning helps to reduce the weight on the injured leg while providing stability. Option A is incorrect because advancing the cane too far in front can lead to loss of balance. Option C is incorrect as it does not provide the necessary support for the injured leg. Option D is incorrect as the elbow should be slightly flexed but not necessarily at a specific angle.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

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