Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?

• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Poor bone formation
• C. Macrosomic fetus
• D. Neural tube defects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus, affecting the brain, spine, or spinal cord development. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (choice B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (choice C) refers to a baby with excessive birth weight and is not a typical outcome of folic acid deficiency in pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of childbearing age to take recommended folic acid supplements to prevent neural tube defects.

2. During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?

• A. Maternal fever
• B. Fetal heart failure
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia
• D. Fetal head compression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maternal fever can lead to fetal tachycardia due to the transmission of maternal fever to the fetus. This can result in an increased fetal heart rate, making it the correct potential cause in this scenario. Fetal heart failure (choice B) would typically present with bradycardia rather than tachycardia, making it an incorrect choice. Maternal hypoglycemia (choice C) is more likely to cause fetal distress rather than tachycardia. Fetal head compression (choice D) may lead to decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern, but not necessarily tachycardia.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
• B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
• C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
• D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.

4. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Breast tenderness
• B. Urinary frequency
• C. Epistaxis
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes. Educating the client about these discomforts helps them understand what to expect during this stage. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the listed findings are common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct as well, as breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and epistaxis are all common discomforts that pregnant individuals may encounter.

5. A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

• A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
• B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
• C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
• D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.

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