Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?

• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Poor bone formation
• C. Macrosomic fetus
• D. Neural tube defects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus, affecting the brain, spine, or spinal cord development. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (choice B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (choice C) refers to a baby with excessive birth weight and is not a typical outcome of folic acid deficiency in pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of childbearing age to take recommended folic acid supplements to prevent neural tube defects.

2. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

3. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Decreased fetal movement
• B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
• C. Postmaturity
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

4. When reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding, which of the following instructions should be provided?

• A. Burp the newborn at the end of the feeding
• B. Hold the newborn close in a supine position
• C. Keep the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding
• D. Refrigerate any unused formula

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct technique for bottle feeding includes keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding to prevent air from entering the baby's stomach. This helps reduce the risk of the baby swallowing air, which can lead to discomfort and colic. Therefore, maintaining a full nipple during feeding is essential for the baby's comfort and digestion. Option A is incorrect as burping should be done during the feeding to prevent excessive air intake. Option B is incorrect as the baby should be held semi-upright, not in a supine position, to reduce the risk of choking and ear infections. Option D is irrelevant to the feeding process and does not contribute to the baby's well-being.

5. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

• A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
• B. 3+ protein in the urine
• C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
• D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

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