a nurse is assisting with the care of a postpartum client who is exhibiting tearfulness insomnia lack of appetite and a feeling of letdown which of th
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ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Postpartum blues. Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, are common after childbirth and are characterized by symptoms like tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown. This condition is typically self-limiting and resolves without specific treatment. Postpartum fatigue (choice A) refers to extreme tiredness after childbirth but does not typically include symptoms like tearfulness and insomnia. Postpartum psychosis (choice B) is a severe condition that includes symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are not present in the scenario. The letting-go phase (choice C) does not represent a specific postpartum condition related to the symptoms described.

2. A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the postpartum period, the presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a firm, midline fundus at the umbilicus is considered normal. In this situation, the appropriate action is to document the findings and continue to monitor the client. Changes in the amount and character of lochia, deviation of the fundus from the midline, or fundal height above or below the expected level may indicate a need for further intervention. Encouraging bladder emptying is important but not the priority in this scenario. Notify the healthcare provider if there are signs of abnormal postpartum bleeding or fundal abnormalities. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because at this stage, there are no signs of abnormality that require immediate notification of the healthcare provider, increased frequency of fundal massage, or immediate bladder emptying.

3. A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early decelerations in the FHR are benign and are typically caused by fetal head compression during contractions. In this case, with the client at 39 weeks of gestation and on oxytocin, it is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations do not require intervention as they are a normal response to certain stimuli and do not indicate fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations are not related to oxytocin administration. Requesting the provider to assess the client (Choice C) is not needed for early decelerations as they are a normal finding. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (Choice D) is not indicated and would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the client and reassess as needed.

4. What is the most appropriate statement for a nurse to make to a client who has recently experienced a perinatal death?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'I'm sad for you,' is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client who has experienced a perinatal death. This statement conveys empathy and compassion, acknowledging the client's grief and validating their emotions. It opens the door for the client to express their feelings and facilitates further communication and support from the nurse. Choices A, C, and D are not appropriate in this context. Choice A may come across as dismissive of the client's grief by redirecting the focus to another child. Choice C suggests blame or fault, which is not helpful or accurate in most cases of perinatal death. Choice D, while well-intentioned, may not be comforting to all clients and could impose a specific belief system on the client's experience.

5. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

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