a nurse is assisting with the care of a postpartum client who is exhibiting tearfulness insomnia lack of appetite and a feeling of letdown which of th
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ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Postpartum blues. Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, are common after childbirth and are characterized by symptoms like tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown. This condition is typically self-limiting and resolves without specific treatment. Postpartum fatigue (choice A) refers to extreme tiredness after childbirth but does not typically include symptoms like tearfulness and insomnia. Postpartum psychosis (choice B) is a severe condition that includes symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are not present in the scenario. The letting-go phase (choice C) does not represent a specific postpartum condition related to the symptoms described.

2. An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.

3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

4. A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To help a 7-year-old child accept a new family member, it is important to involve them in the process. Obtaining a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling is a thoughtful gesture that can make the older child feel included and valued in the family dynamic. This strategy fosters a sense of connection and understanding between the siblings, promoting acceptance and bonding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly involve the older sibling in a positive and inclusive manner. Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath or making them kiss the newborn might not resonate well with the 7-year-old and could potentially create negative feelings. Switching the sibling's room with the nursery is a major change that may not necessarily promote acceptance and bonding, and it could lead to feelings of displacement or confusion.

5. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

Similar Questions

A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?

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