Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

2. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Decreased fetal movement
• B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
• C. Postmaturity
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

4. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?

• A. No alteration in menses
• B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
• C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
• D. Report of severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.

5. A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?

• A. Dark green leafy vegetables
• B. Deep red or orange vegetables
• C. White bread and rice
• D. Meat, poultry, and fish

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in calcium, making them an excellent alternative source for individuals who dislike or cannot consume dairy products. Calcium is crucial for bone health, particularly during pregnancy, to support the developing fetus and maintain the mother's bone strength. Therefore, recommending dark green leafy vegetables ensures the client receives an adequate intake of calcium despite not liking milk. Choice B, deep red or orange vegetables, are not typically high in calcium. Choice C, white bread and rice, are not significant sources of calcium. Choice D, meat, poultry, and fish, are good sources of protein but do not provide as much calcium as dark green leafy vegetables.

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