Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
• B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
• C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
• D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment?

• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• B. Observation, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation
• C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
• D. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for any abnormalities, palpating to assess tenderness and chest expansion, percussion to evaluate underlying structures, and auscultation to listen to lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect because observation is generally part of inspection, not a separate component. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation should come before percussion in a respiratory assessment. Choice D is incorrect because inspection should precede palpation in a structured assessment.

5. What are the risk factors for developing hypertension?

• A. High sodium diet and lack of physical activity
• B. Low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption
• C. Frequent exercise and low cholesterol diet
• D. Smoking and family history

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High sodium diet and lack of physical activity. These are established risk factors for developing hypertension as they contribute to elevated blood pressure. Choice B, low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption, may also impact blood pressure but are not as strongly associated with hypertension as high sodium intake and lack of physical activity. Choice C, frequent exercise and a low cholesterol diet, are actually beneficial for reducing the risk of hypertension. Choice D, smoking and family history, are more closely linked to other health conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, rather than being primary risk factors for hypertension.

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