ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to bear down
- B. Apply the external fetal monitor
- C. Provide the client with fluids
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.
2. Which of the following actions should the nurse take for a client who has been diagnosed with dementia and is at risk for falls?
- A. Maintain the client's bed in the lowest position
- B. Use a bed exit alarm system
- C. Assist the client with ambulation every hour
- D. Raise all 4 side rails for safety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Use a bed exit alarm system." For a client with dementia at risk for falls, a bed exit alarm system is beneficial as it alerts staff when the client is trying to get up, helping to reduce fall risks. Choice A, maintaining the client's bed in the lowest position, may not prevent falls as effectively as an alarm system. Choice C, assisting the client with ambulation every hour, may not be feasible and could disrupt the client's rest. Choice D, raising all 4 side rails for safety, can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended as a routine fall prevention measure.
3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
- D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.
5. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?
- A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
- B. Pregnancy and smoking
- C. Obesity and varicose veins
- D. Hypertension and high cholesterol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.
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