ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to bear down
- B. Apply the external fetal monitor
- C. Provide the client with fluids
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.
2. A client is experiencing difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling catheter. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?
- A. Assess for bladder distention after 4 hours
- B. Pour warm water over the perineum
- C. Restrict the client's oral fluid intake
- D. Restrict movement for at least 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to assist the client who is experiencing difficulty voiding after the removal of an indwelling catheter is to pour warm water over the perineum. This technique can help stimulate urination by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and improving blood flow to the area. Assessing for bladder distention after 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to assist the client in voiding. Restricting the client's oral fluid intake (Choice C) can exacerbate the issue by reducing urine production. Restricting movement for at least 12 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may lead to discomfort and other complications.
3. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?
- A. Shakiness or Tremors
- B. Confusion or Irritability
- C. Hunger
- D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.
4. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase the intake of potassium
- B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
- C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?
- A. Assist the client to void
- B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
- C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
- D. Prepare to administer a sedative
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.
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