Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
• B. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep.
• C. Take a 1 hr nap during the day.
• D. Perform exercises prior to bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the older adult client to eat a light snack before bedtime. This is beneficial as it helps prevent hunger, which can disrupt sleep. Choice B is incorrect as staying in bed for a prolonged time if unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as taking a 1-hour nap during the day can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night. Choice D is incorrect as performing exercises prior to bedtime can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has full-thickness burns of the thorax and upper torso. After securing the client's airway, which of the following is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Providing pain management.
• B. Offering emotional support.
• C. Preventing infection.
• D. Initiating IV fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After securing the airway, initiating IV fluids is the priority to prevent hypovolemic shock in clients with severe burns. IV fluids help maintain circulating volume and prevent a drop in blood pressure due to fluid loss. Providing pain management, offering emotional support, and preventing infection are important aspects of care but are secondary to ensuring adequate fluid resuscitation in clients with severe burns.

5. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

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