a nurse is assessing a patient with major depressive disorder which of the following is a common cognitive symptom of this disorder a nurse is assessing a patient with major depressive disorder which of the following is a common cognitive symptom of this disorder
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023

1. When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which of the following is a common cognitive symptom?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Negative self-talk is a common cognitive symptom of major depressive disorder. It involves a pattern of negative thoughts and beliefs about oneself, which can significantly impact a patient's self-esteem and overall outlook on life. Hallucinations and delusions are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions like schizophrenia, while lack of appetite is typically considered a physical symptom of depression rather than a cognitive one.

2. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When managing a patient with suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate to assess the severity of the infection. Administering antibiotics is also essential to treat the infection. Choice B is incorrect because while checking for fever and monitoring white blood cell count are important, they alone are not sufficient to manage the patient. Choice C focuses on assessing pain and localized swelling, which are important but not primary in managing suspected infection. Choice D mentions monitoring for chills and administering fluids, which are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected infection.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observation should be of the highest priority to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The status of the airway is the highest priority following cardioversion as it ensures proper oxygenation and helps prevent complications such as airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being immediately after cardioversion. Monitoring the airway ensures that the client can breathe effectively and minimizes the risk of hypoxia and other serious respiratory issues. While blood pressure, oxygen flow rate, and level of consciousness are also important parameters to monitor, they are secondary to ensuring a clear and patent airway for adequate oxygenation.

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