ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Hypotonia
- B. Moderate tremors of the extremities
- C. Axillary temperature 36.1°C (96.9°F)
- D. Excessive crying
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. INR levels
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administration, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?
- A. Discard the medication in the trash
- B. Return the medication to the pharmacy
- C. Discard the medication with another nurse as a witness
- D. Store the medication for future use
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when left with an unused portion of a narcotic medication is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. This procedure ensures accountability and proper disposal of controlled substances. Choice A is incorrect as discarding in the trash can lead to potential misuse or environmental harm. Choice B is incorrect because returning controlled substances to the pharmacy is not the appropriate method for disposal. Choice D is incorrect as storing the medication for future use is not permitted with controlled substances.
4. When teaching a client about the use of trazodone, what should be included?
- A. It can cause sedation
- B. It is a stimulant
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It should be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Trazodone can cause sedation, so clients should be cautioned about activities requiring alertness, like driving. Choice B is incorrect because trazodone is not a stimulant; it is actually a sedating antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect as all medications have potential side effects. Choice D is not specifically indicated for trazodone; the client should follow the prescribing healthcare provider's instructions regarding food intake.
5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 4
- B. 7 (comatose)
- C. 9
- D. 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access