a nurse is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery which of the following should the nurse monitor for
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

4. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who is receiving oxytocin. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing contractions every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take in this situation is to stop the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress by compromising oxygen supply. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions, allowing for better fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, but stopping the oxytocin is the priority. Increasing IV fluid rate (Choice C) is not the appropriate action in response to hyperstimulation. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may eventually be necessary, the immediate action should be to address the hyperstimulation by stopping the oxytocin infusion.

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