ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Improved mobility
- D. Normal temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking prednisone about the adverse effects of this medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect of prednisone that the nurse should emphasize is hyperglycemia. Prednisone is known to increase blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. While weight gain and other metabolic changes are possible side effects, hyperglycemia is a more critical concern due to the risk of uncontrolled blood sugar levels and its impact on overall health. Insomnia and hypertension are not typically associated with prednisone use, making them less relevant to emphasize during client education.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take ibuprofen for headaches.
- B. I will use an electric razor to shave.
- C. I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables.
- D. I will have my blood levels checked regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, as both medications affect clotting. The client should use alternative pain relievers like acetaminophen. Choice B is correct as using an electric razor is a safe choice to prevent cuts that could lead to bleeding. Choice C is correct as warfarin interacts with vitamin K found in leafy green vegetables. Choice D is correct as regular blood level checks are necessary to monitor the effects and adjust the warfarin dosage if needed.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of omeprazole. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Avoid taking it with NSAIDs
- C. Monitor for gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. It can cause drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can mask symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding; clients should be monitored for this. Choices A and B are incorrect because omeprazole is usually taken before meals, and while it is important to avoid NSAIDs if possible due to their effects on the stomach, it is not directly related to omeprazole use. Choice D is also incorrect as omeprazole is not typically associated with causing drowsiness.
5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Pruritus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
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