Nursing Elites

1. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

2. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?

• A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
• B. Administer a bronchodilator
• C. Suction the tracheostomy
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about ways to reduce symptoms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid lying down after meals
• B. Eat large meals to reduce acid production
• C. Drink carbonated beverages with meals
• D. Consume spicy foods to improve digestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid lying down after meals.' This instruction is important for clients with GERD as it helps reduce reflux symptoms. Lying down after meals can worsen GERD symptoms by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals can actually increase acid production and exacerbate GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as carbonated beverages can trigger acid reflux in individuals with GERD. Choice D is also incorrect because consuming spicy foods can irritate the esophagus and lead to increased reflux symptoms.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's morning medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to verify the client's identity?

• A. Ask the client's full name
• B. Scan the client's facility identification band
• C. Call the client's name
• D. Verify with a second nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to verify a client's identity when administering medications is to scan the client's facility identification band. This method ensures accuracy and helps prevent medication errors. Asking the client's full name (Choice A) may not be reliable as names can be similar, leading to confusion. Calling the client's name (Choice C) may not be effective if there are multiple clients with the same name in the facility. Verifying with a second nurse (Choice D) is an important safety measure for certain tasks but is not specifically for verifying a client's identity.

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