Nursing Elites

1. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
• B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
• C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
• D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.

2. When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?

• A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
• B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
• C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
• D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

4. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

• A. Peanut butter
• B. Potatoes
• C. Apple juice
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

5. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

Similar Questions