Nursing Elites

1. In an acute mental health facility, a nurse is communicating with a client. The client states, “I can’t sleep. I stay up all night.” The nurse responds, “You are having difficulty sleeping?” Which of the following therapeutic communication techniques is the nurse demonstrating?

• A. Offering general leads
• B. Summarizing
• C. Focusing
• D. Restating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse is using the restating technique, where the nurse paraphrases or repeats the main idea expressed by the client to show understanding and encourage further communication. Restating helps clarify the client's message and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A, offering general leads, involves encouraging the client to continue talking with nonverbal or minimal verbal prompts. Summarizing (Choice B) involves condensing and organizing the client's message. Focusing (Choice C) involves centering the conversation on a key element or topic.

2. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.

3. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?

• A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
• B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
• C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
• D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.

4. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar disorder, a lower dosage of lithium is often prescribed to prevent toxicity and maintain stability while minimizing side effects. Lower doses are typically used once the patient has achieved mood stabilization to reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with long-term lithium use.

5. Which of the following interventions is most effective in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors.
• B. Helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational.
• C. Providing the patient with a structured daily routine.
• D. Allowing the patient to avoid situations that trigger their obsessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational. This cognitive-behavioral approach can assist in reducing the frequency and intensity of obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors by challenging and reframing maladaptive beliefs and thought patterns associated with OCD. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors (choice A) reinforces the compulsive behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue. Providing a structured daily routine (choice C) may help in some cases but does not directly target the irrational thoughts and beliefs. Allowing the patient to avoid trigger situations (choice D) can provide temporary relief but does not address the core problem of irrational thoughts and behaviors.

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