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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. In an acute mental health facility, a nurse is communicating with a client. The client states, “I can’t sleep. I stay up all night.” The nurse responds, “You are having difficulty sleeping?” Which of the following therapeutic communication techniques is the nurse demonstrating?
- A. Offering general leads
- B. Summarizing
- C. Focusing
- D. Restating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse is using the restating technique, where the nurse paraphrases or repeats the main idea expressed by the client to show understanding and encourage further communication. Restating helps clarify the client's message and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A, offering general leads, involves encouraging the client to continue talking with nonverbal or minimal verbal prompts. Summarizing (Choice B) involves condensing and organizing the client's message. Focusing (Choice C) involves centering the conversation on a key element or topic.
2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed fluvoxamine. What is a common side effect of this medication?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluvoxamine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used in the treatment of OCD. Patients should be advised to monitor and report any gastrointestinal disturbances, including nausea, to their healthcare provider.
3. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
- B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Checking for signs of depression
- D. Monitoring for changes in appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.
4. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which symptom is this medication most likely intended to address?
- A. Panic attacks
- B. Tremors and palpitations
- C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- D. Depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to alleviate physical symptoms associated with anxiety disorders, such as tremors and palpitations. These medications help manage the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, like increased heart rate and trembling, which are often prominent in social anxiety disorder. Beta-blockers do not primarily target cognitive symptoms like recurrent, intrusive thoughts (choice C), panic attacks (choice A), or depression (choice D) in social anxiety disorder.
5. When caring for a patient with dissociative identity disorder, which nursing intervention is a priority?
- A. Providing detailed education about the condition
- B. Monitoring for signs of self-harm or suicidal ideation
- C. Encouraging the patient to recall traumatic events
- D. Helping the patient develop a strong sense of identity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a patient with dissociative identity disorder, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor for signs of self-harm or suicidal ideation. Ensuring patient safety is crucial, as individuals with this disorder may be at increased risk of self-harm or suicidal behaviors. Providing education about the condition is beneficial but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Encouraging the patient to recall traumatic events can be detrimental and should be done cautiously under professional guidance. While helping the patient develop a strong sense of identity is important in the long term, it is not the immediate priority when safety is a concern.
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