Nursing Elites

1. A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse
• B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider
• C. Encourage the client to mobilize to enhance mobility
• D. Contact the health care provider to obtain a swab of the stoma for culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action in this situation is to report signs and symptoms of possible obstruction to the healthcare provider. Lack of ostomy output and worsening nausea can indicate a potential obstruction, which requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent complications.

2. The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking metformin (Glucophage) is with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves the medication's absorption. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to more adverse effects, so it is essential to take it with food. Option A ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to enhance its effectiveness and reduce side effects. Option C ('Take the medication on an empty stomach') is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal issues. Option D ('Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar') is incorrect because metformin is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed for high blood sugar.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
• C. Decreased heart rate.
• D. Improved liver function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.

4. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take an extra dose if you miss one.
• B. Avoid high-potassium foods.
• C. Report any visual disturbances.
• D. Stop taking the medication if your pulse is normal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any visual disturbances.' Patients taking digoxin should be instructed to report any visual disturbances, as this can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances like changes in color vision, blurred vision, or seeing halos around lights can indicate an overdose of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Instructing a patient to take an extra dose if they miss one can lead to overdose. Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients on potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin. Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect, as the pulse rate alone is not an indicator of digoxin effectiveness or toxicity.

5. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

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