Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

2. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage light exercise.
• B. Avoid intramuscular injections.
• C. Do not administer aspirin.
• D. Use a soft toothbrush for oral care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. To minimize this risk, patients with thrombocytopenia should avoid activities that can cause injury or bleeding, such as intramuscular injections. Encouraging light exercise can be beneficial, as it promotes circulation without increasing the risk of trauma. However, avoiding intramuscular injections is crucial to prevent bleeding episodes. Aspirin should be avoided as it can further impair platelet function, exacerbating the condition. Using a soft toothbrush for oral care is recommended to prevent gum bleeding in patients with thrombocytopenia.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important to ensure client safety?

• A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
• B. Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.
• C. Administer the blood with normal saline.
• D. Monitor the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity and blood compatibility is the most critical step in ensuring client safety during a blood transfusion. This process helps prevent transfusion reactions by confirming that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient.

4. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase cardiac output
• B. Reduce fluid retention
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, is primarily prescribed in patients with chronic heart failure to decrease heart rate and reduce the workload on the heart. By lowering the heart rate, carvedilol helps the heart function more efficiently and improves symptoms in patients with heart failure.

5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

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