ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
- B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
- D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Intracranial Pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a critical finding in a client with a severe head injury. Elevated ICP can lead to further brain damage and must be addressed promptly to prevent complications such as herniation. Monitoring and managing ICP are crucial in the care of patients with head injuries in the ICU.
2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.
3. The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
4. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.
5. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
- A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
- C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
- D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.
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