ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- B. I should have my thyroid levels checked regularly.
- C. If I lose weight, I may need an increased dose.
- D. I can stop taking this medication once my symptoms improve.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Levothyroxine is typically a lifelong therapy for hypothyroidism. It should not be discontinued even if symptoms improve because the medication helps replace the deficient thyroid hormone. Stopping the medication prematurely can lead to a recurrence of symptoms and potential complications. Patients must understand the importance of continuous levothyroxine therapy and the necessity of regular follow-up with their healthcare provider to monitor thyroid levels and adjust the dosage as needed.
2. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Celiac disease
- C. Lactose intolerance
- D. Crohn's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.
3. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.
4. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.
5. What should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of enoxaparin in a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is the appropriate parameter to monitor the effectiveness of enoxaparin in preventing clot formation in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). INR reflects the clotting ability of the blood and is commonly used to assess the therapeutic range of anticoagulant medications, such as enoxaparin, which is crucial in managing and preventing thrombotic events like DVT.
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