ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.
2. An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?
- A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
- B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
- C. Wears protective shoes.
- D. Quits smoking.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.' In clients with peripheral vascular disease, decreased venous congestion is a desired outcome. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return and reduces congestion in the lower extremities, contributing to the achievement of this treatment goal.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.
4. A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?
- A. Hormonal changes induced by the stress response leading to an acidic oral environment
- B. Systemic infections commonly affecting the teeth
- C. Intravenous hydration lacking fluoride
- D. Inadequate nutrition and reduced saliva production contributing to cavities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can lead to a conducive environment for the development of dental caries. Without proper nutrition and sufficient saliva, the protective mechanisms against cavities are compromised, making the individual more susceptible to tooth decay.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Keep the client's room warm.
- C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
- D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, it is crucial to ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Bladder distention is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in these clients. Keeping the bladder empty helps prevent the complications associated with autonomic dysreflexia, such as dangerously high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, keeping the room warm is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia, and limiting high-fiber foods is not a primary intervention for this condition.
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