Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia.
• B. Orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Photosensitivity.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.

2. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

3. What nursing intervention can help alleviate pruritus in a client with cirrhosis?

• A. Administering antihistamines
• B. Providing a high-protein diet
• C. Applying emollients to the skin
• D. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying emollients to the skin can help alleviate pruritus in clients with cirrhosis. Emollients help soothe and moisturize the skin, reducing the discomfort associated with itching.

4. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?

• A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
• B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
• C. On-call sedation administered.
• D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.

5. What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Monitor weight daily.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with a history of hypertension being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic is to monitor weight daily. This is important because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid imbalances, and monitoring weight daily can help detect significant changes early. Choice A, avoiding foods high in potassium, is not directly related to thiazide diuretics. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, may vary depending on the specific medication but is not a universal instruction. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not appropriate as adequate hydration is important to prevent complications like hypokalemia.

Similar Questions