Nursing Elites

1. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?

• A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
• B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
• C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
• D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and is receiving aspirin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin therapy is contraindicated in clients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding because aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding. Option B, prothrombin time of 12 seconds, is within the normal range and does not indicate a concern related to aspirin therapy. Option C, platelet count of 180,000/mm³, is also within the normal range and does not suggest a need for reporting to the provider in the context of aspirin therapy. Option D, creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and is not directly related to aspirin therapy in this scenario.

4. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient with a tracheostomy?

• A. Maintain a patent airway and monitor for infection
• B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified oxygen
• C. Educate patient on self-care and tracheostomy cleaning
• D. Change tracheostomy ties daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a patent airway and monitor for infection. These are crucial nursing interventions for patients with tracheostomies to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent complications. Suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified oxygen can be part of the care plan but are not as essential as maintaining a patent airway. Educating the patient on self-care and tracheostomy cleaning is important for long-term management but is not as immediate as ensuring a patent airway and monitoring for infection. Changing tracheostomy ties daily is a specific task related to tracheostomy care but is not as critical as ensuring the airway is clear and infection-free.

5. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with potential diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Monitor blood glucose and check for ketones in urine
• B. Administer insulin and provide fluids
• C. Administer potassium and check for electrolyte imbalance
• D. Administer sodium bicarbonate and monitor urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: To assess a patient with potential diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), healthcare providers should monitor blood glucose and check for ketones in the urine. Elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of ketones in urine are indicative of DKA. Choice B is incorrect because administering insulin and providing fluids are treatments for DKA rather than assessment measures. Choice C is incorrect as administering potassium and checking for electrolyte imbalance are interventions related to managing DKA complications, not initial assessment. Choice D is incorrect because administering sodium bicarbonate and monitoring urine output are not primary assessment actions for DKA.

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