Nursing Elites

1. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?

• A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
• B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
• C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
• D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.

2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a low albumin level?

• A. Increase protein intake to improve healing
• B. Consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet
• C. Provide nutritional supplements
• D. Increase IV fluid intake to improve hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer and low albumin level. This intervention can help address the client's poor nutritional status, support wound healing, and specifically target the low albumin level. Increasing protein intake alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance. Providing nutritional supplements (Choice C) can be beneficial but consulting with a dietitian for a personalized plan is more effective in this case. Increasing IV fluid intake (Choice D) primarily targets hydration and may not directly address the underlying issue of low albumin and poor nutritional status.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with delirium?

• A. Assess for confusion and reorient the patient
• B. Provide a quiet environment and administer sedatives
• C. Provide oxygen therapy and monitor vital signs
• D. Provide pain relief and monitor for signs of recovery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with delirium is by assessing for confusion and reorienting the patient. Delirium is characterized by acute confusion and disturbance in attention, so reorienting the patient to time, place, and person can help improve their awareness and cognition. Providing a quiet environment is important to reduce stimuli that can exacerbate delirium, but administering sedatives may worsen the condition. Oxygen therapy and monitoring vital signs are essential aspects of general patient care but are not specific to managing delirium. Providing pain relief is important for overall patient comfort but may not directly address the core issue of delirium.

5. Which nursing action is a priority when managing a client with a wound infection?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 24 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol-based solutions
• D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics is crucial when managing a client with a wound infection. This step helps identify the specific pathogens causing the infection, allowing for the prescription of the most effective antibiotics. Changing the wound dressing every 24 hours (Choice A) is important for wound care but not the priority when an infection is present. Cleansing the wound with alcohol-based solutions (Choice C) can be too harsh and may delay wound healing. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice D) is not recommended for infected wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during dressing changes.

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