Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Store the insulin in the freezer.
• B. Administer the insulin at the same site each time.
• C. Rotate injection sites within the same region.
• D. Shake the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to self-administer insulin is to rotate injection sites within the same region. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by fat tissue changes due to repeated injections in the same spot, and also ensures consistent absorption of insulin throughout the body. Storing insulin in the freezer is incorrect as it can lead to denaturation of the insulin. Administering the insulin at the same site each time can cause lipodystrophy and inconsistent absorption. Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is also incorrect as it can lead to insulin degradation.

2. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

3. A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?

• A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
• B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
• C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
• D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is a preterm neonate with respiratory distress and is being transported to a Level IV neonatal facility. The drug most likely to be administered by the transport team is Beractant (Survanta) via endotracheal tube. Beractant is a surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung compliance and reducing the need for mechanical ventilation.

4. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

5. What action should the nurse take for a patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis exhibiting rapid, deep respirations?

• A. Administer the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min.
• C. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.
• D. Encourage the patient to practice guided imagery for relaxation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations is to administer a normal saline bolus and insulin. The rapid, deep respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis, which requires correction with a saline bolus to prevent hypovolemia and insulin to facilitate glucose re-entry into cells. Oxygen therapy is not necessary since the increased respiratory rate is compensatory and not due to hypoxemia. Encouraging relaxation techniques or administering lorazepam are inappropriate as they can worsen the acidosis by suppressing the compensatory respiratory effort.

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