Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• D. Decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial for individuals with hypertension to assess the effectiveness of the prescribed medication and to ensure blood pressure is within the target range. This helps in managing hypertension and preventing complications associated with high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while taking the medication in the morning may be recommended for some drugs, it is not the key instruction for hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding foods high in potassium and decreasing high-sodium foods are important dietary considerations for certain conditions, but they are not the immediate focus when starting hydrochlorothiazide.

2. When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?

• A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
• C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
• D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms of shortness of breath, which could indicate fluid overload from the PRBC transfusion. By decreasing the intravenous flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate of blood being infused, potentially alleviating the symptoms of fluid overload and shortness of breath. This intervention can help prevent further complications and promote the client's comfort and safety.

3. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
• D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?

• A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
• B. Ascending weakness.
• C. New onset of confusion.
• D. Decreased vital capacity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.

5. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

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