Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is evaluating the time management skills of a newly licensed nurse. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse does which of the following?

• A. Re-evaluates priorities halfway through the shift
• B. Delegates changing a sterile dressing to a licensed practical nurse
• C. Groups activities for the same client
• D. Works on several tasks simultaneously

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Working on several tasks simultaneously may lead to errors due to divided attention and lack of focus. It is important for nurses to prioritize tasks and complete them one at a time to ensure thoroughness and accuracy. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate time management strategies. Re-evaluating priorities, delegating tasks appropriately, and grouping activities for the same client can help improve efficiency and quality of care.

2. A nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old newborn for cold stress. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Respiratory rate of 60/min
• B. Jitteriness of the hands
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jitteriness of the hands. Jitteriness is a key sign of cold stress in a newborn, indicating the need for immediate warming measures. A respiratory rate of 60/min may not be directly indicative of cold stress. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not typical findings associated with cold stress in newborns.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. A baked potato
• B. A chicken breast
• C. A banana
• D. A cup of orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in potassium, making it a safe option for clients with chronic kidney disease who need to limit their potassium intake. Foods like bananas and orange juice are high in potassium, which should be avoided or limited by individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent further kidney damage.

5. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit sodium intake
• C. Avoid potassium supplements
• D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.

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