a 36 year old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea the diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obta
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1. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

2. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.

3. A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fludrocortisone, such as Florinef, is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, which can lead to hypernatremia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor for hypernatremia when a client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because fludrocortisone promotes potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is incorrect as fludrocortisone promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is unrelated to the action of fludrocortisone.

4. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

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