Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

• A. Avoiding palpation of the abdomen.
• B. Palpating the right lower quadrant first.
• C. Auscultating bowel sounds for 2 minutes.
• D. Palpating the left upper quadrant first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

2. What is the most likely cause of a sudden onset of respiratory distress in a 5-year-old child with no fever?

• A. Infection of the lower airways.
• B. A progressive upper airway infection.
• C. Inflammation of the upper airway.
• D. A foreign body airway obstruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sudden onset of respiratory distress in a child without fever is most likely due to a foreign body airway obstruction. This obstruction can rapidly lead to difficulty breathing, stridor, and other signs of respiratory distress without necessarily causing a fever. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent further complications and ensure the child's airway remains clear.

3. A 7-year-old child has an altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash. You perform your assessment and administer supplemental oxygen. En route to the hospital, you should be MOST alert for:

• A. hypotension.
• B. combativeness.
• C. convulsions.
• D. respiratory distress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 7-year-old child with altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash, the most critical concern is the potential for convulsions. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a febrile seizure or another type of seizure activity. Monitoring for convulsions is crucial during transport to ensure prompt intervention if they occur, as seizures can lead to additional complications and require immediate management.

4. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

• A. indicates decompensated shock.
• B. reflects adequate compensation.
• C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
• D. is appropriate based on his age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

5. What is the main cause or association of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Mostly associated with autoantibodies
• B. Mostly associated with childhood cancer
• C. Commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome
• D. Commonly associated with overeating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome. These conditions are major contributing factors to the development of Type 2 diabetes due to insulin resistance and other metabolic abnormalities linked to excess body weight and unhealthy lifestyle habits.

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