a 6 year old boy complains of pain to the right lower quadrant of his abdomen assessment of this childs abdomen should include
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ATI LPN

LPN Pediatrics

1. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

2. You have arrived for your shift on the children's ward and need to assess a 2-year-old who is accompanied by his father. Identify the appropriate strategy to successfully complete a focused assessment:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Having the child sit in parent's lap can help reduce anxiety and allow for a more accurate assessment.

3. A 30-year-old woman has severe lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and a history of missed periods are concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. The absence of a normal menstrual period along with these symptoms raises suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy, which requires immediate medical attention due to the risk of rupture and life-threatening complications. A normal pregnancy would typically present with different symptoms such as a positive pregnancy test and typical signs of early pregnancy. A ruptured ovarian cyst may present with similar symptoms but typically lacks the history of missed periods. A spontaneous abortion usually involves heavier bleeding and tissue passage, which is not described in this scenario.

4. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The child is wheezing and has nasal flaring and retractions. His oxygen saturation is 92%. You should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a scenario where a child presents with respiratory distress, wheezing, nasal flaring, retractions, and an oxygen saturation of 92%, the appropriate intervention is to administer high-flow oxygen. This helps to improve oxygenation and alleviate the respiratory distress the child is experiencing. Placing the child in a supine position can worsen their condition by affecting their ability to breathe effectively. Chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the child is not in cardiac arrest. Administering low-flow oxygen may not provide adequate oxygenation for a child in respiratory distress with a saturation of 92%. Therefore, the priority is to administer high-flow oxygen to improve oxygen levels and support the child's breathing.

5. Which of the following are not infectious causes of diarrhea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diarrhea can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, parasites, and viruses. Allergy, on the other hand, is a non-infectious cause of diarrhea. When an individual with a food allergy consumes the specific food they are allergic to, it can trigger diarrhea as a part of the allergic reaction.

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