Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

• A. Avoiding palpation of the abdomen.
• B. Palpating the right lower quadrant first.
• C. Auscultating bowel sounds for 2 minutes.
• D. Palpating the left upper quadrant first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

2. Which of the following are classical clinical manifestations that a patient with diabetes mellitus will exhibit EXCEPT?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Polydipsia
• C. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The classical clinical manifestations of diabetes mellitus include polyuria (increased urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and weight loss. Diabetic ketoacidosis is not a classical manifestation but rather a serious complication that can occur in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes.

3. If a baby weighs 14 kg, how much fluid should be administered to the baby over 24 hours using a rate of 100 ml/kg?

• A. 1400ml
• B. 2600ml
• C. 1650ml
• D. 3360ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the fluid requirement for a baby, multiply the weight of the baby (14 kg) by the fluid rate (100 ml/kg): 14 kg x 100 ml/kg = 1400 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 1400 ml.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

5. In the treatment of an infected hematoma, which of the following is NOT recommended?

• A. Incision and drainage
• B. Systemic antibiotics
• C. A and B
• D. Vitamin E

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin E is not a standard treatment for infected hematomas. The primary interventions for infected hematomas typically involve incision and drainage to remove infected fluid and debris, along with the administration of systemic antibiotics to combat the infection. Vitamin E does not play a significant role in the treatment of infected hematomas and is therefore not recommended as a primary treatment option. Choice A (Incision and drainage) and Choice B (Systemic antibiotics) are recommended treatments for infected hematomas as they help in removing infected fluid and combating the infection, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Vitamin E.

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