Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

• A. Avoiding palpation of the abdomen.
• B. Palpating the right lower quadrant first.
• C. Auscultating bowel sounds for 2 minutes.
• D. Palpating the left upper quadrant first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

2. During the pediatric assessment process, which scenario would be the LEAST appropriate for the transition phase?

• A. A parent is available to help keep the child calm.
• B. The child is unstable and needs rapid transport.
• C. You determine that the child's condition is stable.
• D. Your transport time is greater than 30 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pediatric assessment, the transition phase is a critical period where care is handed over from prehospital providers to the hospital team. If the child is unstable and requires rapid transport, it is not appropriate to delay for a transition phase. In such cases, immediate transport to a higher level of care is paramount to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Choice A is appropriate as having a parent present can help keep the child calm during the transition. Choice C is also appropriate as transitioning a stable child allows for a smoother handover. Choice D, while indicating a longer transport time, does not necessarily affect the need for a transition phase as long as the child's condition remains stable.

3. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The child is wheezing and has nasal flaring and retractions. His oxygen saturation is 92%. You should:

• A. place the child in a supine position.
• B. administer high-flow oxygen.
• C. begin chest compressions.
• D. administer low-flow oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a scenario where a child presents with respiratory distress, wheezing, nasal flaring, retractions, and an oxygen saturation of 92%, the appropriate intervention is to administer high-flow oxygen. This helps to improve oxygenation and alleviate the respiratory distress the child is experiencing. Placing the child in a supine position can worsen their condition by affecting their ability to breathe effectively. Chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the child is not in cardiac arrest. Administering low-flow oxygen may not provide adequate oxygenation for a child in respiratory distress with a saturation of 92%. Therefore, the priority is to administer high-flow oxygen to improve oxygen levels and support the child's breathing.

4. A postpartum client is being discharged. The nurse should include which information about postpartum depression?

• A. It can occur at any time postpartum
• B. It is a serious condition that requires attention
• C. It can affect the ability to care for the newborn
• D. It may necessitate medical intervention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum depression is a serious condition that can impact a mother's ability to care for her newborn. It is crucial for healthcare providers to educate clients about the signs and symptoms of postpartum depression, as it may necessitate medical intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the newborn.

5. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, treatment should include:

• A. treating for shock and uterine massage during transport.
• B. uterine massage and transport.
• C. placing her on her left side and transport.
• D. internal vaginal pads and treating for shock during transport.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the mother is showing signs of postpartum hemorrhage with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and mild vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves treating for shock by addressing hypovolemia and providing uterine massage to help control bleeding. Administering high-flow oxygen is essential. Therefore, the most appropriate option is to treat for shock and perform uterine massage during transport to manage the postpartum hemorrhage effectively.

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