a 6 year old boy complains of pain to the right lower quadrant of his abdomen assessment of this childs abdomen should include
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ATI LPN

LPN Pediatrics

1. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

2. The Andrews family has been taking good care of their youngest, Archie, who was diagnosed with asthma. Which of the following statements indicate a need for further home care teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding exercise entirely is not recommended for asthma management. Regular exercise can actually help strengthen the lungs and improve overall respiratory function. Teaching should focus on appropriate exercise routines that are suitable for individuals with asthma to prevent attacks. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate and indicate good understanding of asthma management. Increasing fluid intake helps thin secretions, using the bronchodilator inhaler before the steroid inhaler follows the correct order of inhaler administration, and identifying triggers is essential for asthma control.

3. The nurse is using the New Ballard Score to assess the gestational age of a newborn delivered 4 hours ago. The infant's gestational age is 33 weeks based on early ultrasound and last menstrual period. The nurse expects the infant to exhibit which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, and slow recoil time are all characteristics of a preterm infant. A is incorrect because full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, and scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline are features of a term infant. B is incorrect as testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, and vernix covering the entire body are also indicative of a term infant. D is incorrect because a 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, and rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension are characteristics seen in a more mature infant, not a preterm newborn.

4. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

5. Mr. Lopez has a 7-year-old son with growth hormone (GH) deficiency. He shares with the nurse the desire of his son to play ball games. However, his wife feels the child will be in danger since he is smaller than the other children. In planning anticipatory guidance for these parents, the nurse should keep in mind which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children with GH deficiency may face challenges due to their size, but it is important to encourage their participation in activities like playing ball games to promote healthy self-esteem. Allowing the child to play can help in building confidence and a sense of accomplishment, which are essential for their overall well-being.

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