a 56 year old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months particularly with the ingestion of meat he has no difficulties
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1. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

2. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed hydroxychloroquine, especially in the context of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is to report any vision changes immediately. Hydroxychloroquine can potentially cause retinal damage, so prompt reporting and ophthalmologic evaluation are essential in preventing irreversible eye complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the significant adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine on vision. Taking the medication with milk, avoiding high-fat foods, or increasing intake of green leafy vegetables are not relevant to the primary concern of monitoring for visual changes.

3. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

4. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.

5. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status and administer IV fluids. This approach helps rest the pancreas, decrease pancreatic stimulation, and prevent further exacerbation of the condition. By withholding oral intake and providing IV fluids, the pancreas is given the opportunity to recover and inflammation can be reduced. This intervention is crucial in the acute phase of pancreatitis to support the healing process and prevent complications.

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