Nursing Elites

1. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

• A. Upper endoscopy
• B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
• C. Barium swallow
• D. Esophageal manometry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

2. An elderly client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Elevated serum sodium level.
• B. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level.
• C. Increased serum creatinine level.
• D. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with congestive heart failure (CHF), impaired cardiac function can lead to decreased renal perfusion, resulting in elevated serum creatinine levels. Therefore, an increased serum creatinine level is a common laboratory finding in CHF clients, indicating possible renal impairment.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.

4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

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