Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child visit, a 10-year-old child is found to be above the 95th percentile for weight and reports watching more than two hours of television daily. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this child is:

• A. Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements
• B. Altered Growth and Development
• C. Ineffective Coping
• D. Altered Family Processes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for a 10-year-old child who is above the 95th percentile for weight and watches more than two hours of television daily would be 'Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements.' This diagnosis reflects the excessive intake of nutrients compared to the child's energy expenditure, which can contribute to weight gain. 'Altered Growth and Development' (choice B) is not the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario, as the primary concern is related to nutrition and sedentary behavior rather than developmental issues. 'Ineffective Coping' (choice C) and 'Altered Family Processes' (choice D) are also not relevant to the child's weight status and television habits. Monitoring and addressing the child's dietary habits and sedentary behavior are essential to promote a healthier lifestyle and prevent further weight-related issues.

2. Which behavior is most indicative that a 2-year-old is experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety because his parents cannot stay all day at the hospital with him?

• A. He withdraws from the nursing staff.
• B. He cries when his parents leave.
• C. He lies quietly in bed.
• D. He cries when his parents arrive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most indicative behavior of a 2-year-old experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety due to parents not staying all day at the hospital is crying when his parents leave. This behavior is a common manifestation of separation anxiety in children, as they struggle with the absence of their primary attachment figures. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative because withdrawing from the nursing staff, lying quietly in bed, or crying when parents arrive do not specifically demonstrate the distress caused by separation from parents, which is the hallmark of separation anxiety in children.

3. Atta, who weighs 20kg, has been prescribed amoxicillin 500 mg b.i.d. The drug information indicates a daily dose of amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. What is the safest dose in milligrams for this child?

• A. 1000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. 500 mg
• D. 250 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the safest dose of amoxicillin for Atta, we multiply the weight (20kg) by the daily dose (50 mg/kg/day) which equals 1000 mg/day. Since the dose is to be given in two divided doses, the safest dose for each administration would be 500 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000 mg, as it aligns with the prescribed dose for this child based on weight and dosing guidelines. Choice B, 750 mg, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated daily dose. Choice C, 500 mg, is incorrect as it represents the safest dose for each administration, not the total daily dose. Choice D, 250 mg, is incorrect as it is below the calculated daily dose required for the child.

4. Which pain assessment tool is most appropriate for a 3-month-old hospitalized with a fractured femur?

• A. FLACC scale
• B. Poker chip tool
• C. Number scale
• D. Visual analog scale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The FLACC scale, which stands for Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability, is specifically designed for nonverbal patients like infants and young children. It assesses pain based on observable behaviors such as facial expressions, leg movement, activity level, cry, and the ability to be consoled. In this case, a 3-month-old infant who is unable to communicate verbally would best be assessed using the FLACC scale to determine the level of pain experienced due to a fractured femur. The Poker chip tool, Number scale, and Visual analog scale are not suitable for nonverbal infants and young children as they rely on self-reporting or cognitive abilities that are not yet developed at this age.

5. What is the term for a condition where there is a failure of the pituitary to produce sufficient growth hormone to sustain normal growth in children, with 80% of cases being idiopathic? It may present with familial patterns, affecting males more than females.

• A. Cretinism
• B. Growth hormone deficiency
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Precocious puberty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Growth hormone deficiency refers to a condition where there is inadequate production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland. This results in impaired growth in children. While 80% of cases are of unknown cause (idiopathic), some may have familial patterns. It is more common in males than females. Cretinism is a condition of severe hypothyroidism during infancy, not related to growth hormone. Hypothyroidism is a disorder involving low thyroid hormone levels, and precocious puberty is the early onset of puberty. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Growth hormone deficiency.'

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