Nursing Elites

1. During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?

• A. Sternal notch
• B. Nipple line
• C. Xiphoid process
• D. Fifth intercostal space

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When measuring a newborn's chest circumference, the appropriate anatomical landmark to use is the nipple line. This point is consistent and allows for accurate and standardized measurements across all newborn assessments. The sternal notch is not typically used for chest circumference measurements in newborns. The xiphoid process is located at the lower end of the sternum and is not an appropriate landmark for chest circumference measurement. The fifth intercostal space is typically used for locating the point of maximal impulse (PMI) during cardiac assessments, not for measuring chest circumference.

2. When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?

• A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL
• B. Urine ketones present
• C. Alanine aminotransferase 20 IU/L
• D. Blood glucose 114 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration, which is a common manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances due to dehydration. Monitoring for ketonuria helps assess the degree of dehydration in clients with this condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin level, alanine aminotransferase level, and blood glucose level are not specific manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum. While these laboratory values may be abnormal in some cases, they are not typically used to diagnose or assess the condition.

3. A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?

• A. Maintain the client in the lithotomy position.
• B. Perform vaginal examinations frequently.
• C. Remind the client to bear down with each contraction.
• D. Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours is essential during labor to prevent bladder distention, which can hinder labor progress and cause discomfort. A distended bladder can also lead to potential complications such as uterine atony or increased risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is not necessary during the active phase of the first stage of labor and may not be comfortable for the client. Choice B is incorrect because performing vaginal examinations frequently can increase the risk of introducing infection and disrupt the natural progress of labor. Choice C is incorrect as bearing down with each contraction is typically reserved for the second stage of labor when the cervix is fully dilated, not during the active phase of the first stage.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

• A. Singleton pregnancy
• B. BMI of 20
• C. Maternal age of 32 years
• D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

5. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

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