Nursing Elites

1. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

2. Which of the following statements regarding SIDS is correct?

• A. SIDS can occur in premature infants.
• B. It is most commonly a result of child abuse.
• C. Death usually occurs during sleep.
• D. SIDS can be prevented by placing the baby on its back to sleep.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement regarding SIDS is that death usually occurs during sleep. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is the unexpected death of a seemingly healthy infant, typically occurring during sleep. The exact cause of SIDS is not fully understood. While placing the baby on its back to sleep is a recommended preventive measure to reduce the risk of SIDS, it cannot guarantee prevention. Choice A is incorrect as SIDS is not limited to premature infants. Choice B is incorrect as SIDS is not primarily caused by child abuse.

3. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

4. The nurse is preparing new parents for discharge with their newborn. The father asks the nurse why the baby's head is so pointed and puffy-looking. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. His head is molded from fitting through the birth canal. It will become more round.
• B. We refer to that as 'cone head,' which is a temporary condition that goes away.
• C. It might mean that your baby sustained brain damage during birth, and could have delays.
• D. I think he looks just like you. Your head is much the same shape as your baby's.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected response 'His head is molded from fitting through the birth canal. It will become more round.' is the best answer as it explains the physiological reason for the baby's appearance after birth. It reassures the father that the pointed and puffy-looking head is a normal part of the birthing process and will resolve on its own. Choice B is incorrect because while 'cone head' is a term used colloquially, it does not provide a detailed explanation. Choice C is incorrect and should be avoided as it introduces unnecessary worry by suggesting brain damage. Choice D is not an appropriate response as it doesn't address the father's concern or provide accurate information about newborn physiology.

5. Use the scenario to answer questions 13-18. A patient has come to the OPD with complaints of anaesthesia and paresthesia of the lower limbs. After laboratory investigations, the doctor has diagnosed the patient with Diabetes Mellitus but failed to specify whether it is type 1 or type 2. Onset of Type 1 diabetes is characterized by:

• A. Occurs after pubertal onset in the majority of cases
• B. Occurs when parents are poor
• C. Occurs at an early age
• D. Occurs after childbirth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes typically occurs after pubertal onset. This form of diabetes is most commonly diagnosed in individuals under the age of 30, with a peak incidence in the mid-teens to early 20s. Puberty is a period of hormonal changes and growth, which can trigger the onset of type 1 diabetes due to the stress it places on the body's insulin-producing cells.

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