Nursing Elites

1. Which type of diabetes mellitus (DM) is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, making it preventable?

• A. Type 1
• B. Type 2
• C. Type 1 and 2
• D. Gestational diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, such as lifestyle choices and genetics, making it preventable. Type 1 diabetes, on the other hand, is an autoimmune condition that is not preventable. Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not entirely preventable. Type 1 and 2 diabetes are distinct conditions, with Type 2 being the type associated with preventable risk factors.

2. Fred, a 12-year-old boy, is diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms would Nurse Nica expect to assess?

• A. Mild cough
• B. Slight fever
• C. Chest pain
• D. Bulging fontanel

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain is a common symptom associated with pneumococcal pneumonia. It can occur due to inflammation of the pleura or irritation of the lung tissue, leading to sharp or stabbing pain that worsens with breathing or coughing. While cough and fever are also common with pneumonia, chest pain is particularly significant in this case.

3. The healthcare provider assesses the newborn's ears to be parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye. The healthcare provider documents this finding to be which of the following?

• A. A normal position
• B. A possible chromosomal abnormality
• C. Facial paralysis
• D. Prematurity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the top of the ear (pinna) is parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye, it is considered a normal position in a newborn. This alignment is an important assessment to ensure normal development and anatomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the parallel alignment of the ears to the outer and inner canthus of the eye is not indicative of a possible chromosomal abnormality, facial paralysis, or prematurity. It is simply a normal anatomical finding in a newborn.

4. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST suggest acute respiratory distress in a 2-month-old infant?

• A. Heart rate of 130 beats/min
• B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
• C. Abdominal breathing
• D. Grunting respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grunting respirations are a key clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. Grunting is a protective mechanism where the infant exhales against a partially closed glottis to increase functional residual capacity and oxygenation. This is often seen in conditions such as respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, or other causes of respiratory compromise in infants. Monitoring respiratory patterns like grunting is crucial for early recognition and intervention in infants with respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to acute respiratory distress in infants. While an elevated heart rate and respiratory rate can be present in respiratory distress, grunting respirations are a more direct indicator of significant respiratory compromise in infants.

5. The caregiver is teaching a new mother about infant safety. Which statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. I will place my baby on their back to sleep.
• B. I will keep soft toys and pillows out of the crib.
• C. I will use a car seat for every car ride.
• D. I will allow my baby to sleep in my bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Allowing a baby to sleep in an adult bed increases the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). It is safer for infants to sleep on a firm, flat surface in their own crib or bassinet to reduce the risk of accidental suffocation or strangulation. Therefore, the caregiver should be advised against co-sleeping with the infant to ensure the baby's safety.

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