ATI LPN
LPN Pediatrics
1. Which position is MOST appropriate for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord?
- A. Supine with legs elevated
- B. Supine with hips elevated
- C. Left lateral recumbent
- D. Left side with legs elevated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate position for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is supine with hips elevated. This position helps reduce pressure on the cord, preventing further complications and ensuring optimal blood flow to the fetus.
2. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase calcium intake
- B. Provide a diet high in potassium
- C. Restrict protein intake
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. PT and INR
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.
4. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.
5. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- B. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.
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