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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is a priority intervention for a patient with severe anxiety?
- A. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings in detail.
- B. Providing a calm and quiet environment.
- C. Encouraging the patient to participate in group activities.
- D. Providing detailed information about their treatment plan.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a patient experiencing severe anxiety, providing a calm and quiet environment is a priority intervention. This approach helps reduce stimuli and anxiety levels, creating a more soothing atmosphere for the individual. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings in detail or participate in group activities may be beneficial in certain situations, but establishing a peaceful setting takes precedence when managing severe anxiety. Providing detailed information about their treatment plan, although important, may not be the immediate priority when the patient is in a state of severe anxiety and needs a calming environment first.
2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with COPD?
- A. Administer oxygen and provide breathing exercises
- B. Suction airway secretions and encourage coughing
- C. Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen saturation
- D. Restrict fluids and encourage mobility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen and provide breathing exercises. These interventions are essential in managing COPD as they help improve lung function and oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning airway secretions and encouraging coughing are not typically indicated for COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect as while administering bronchodilators is common in COPD treatment, monitoring oxygen saturation alone is not a comprehensive intervention. Choice D is incorrect as restricting fluids is not a standard intervention for COPD, and encouraging mobility, although beneficial, is not as directly related to managing COPD symptoms as administering oxygen and providing breathing exercises.
3. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.
4. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once they are made
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives
- C. I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.
5. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.
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