ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A client is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Inhale rapidly through the mouth after pressing down on the inhaler
- B. Exhale completely before pressing down on the inhaler
- C. Hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling
- D. Inhale slowly while pressing down on the inhaler
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling when using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. This action ensures proper medication absorption in the lungs. Inhaling rapidly (choice A) may cause the medication to impact the mouth/throat rather than the lungs. Exhaling completely before inhalation (choice B) does not optimize medication delivery. Inhaling slowly (choice D) may not allow the medication to reach the lungs effectively.
2. When instructing a client with tuberculosis on home care, what is the priority teaching point?
- A. Wear a surgical mask at all times
- B. Limit visitors to two-hour increments
- C. Take medication for 6-9 months
- D. Take breaks during meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take medication for 6-9 months.' The priority teaching point for a client with tuberculosis is to ensure they understand the importance of completing the entire course of medication. This is crucial to effectively treat and cure tuberculosis, prevent the development of drug-resistant strains, and reduce the risk of transmission to others. Choice A is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask at all times is not the priority teaching point for tuberculosis home care. Choice B is not the priority teaching point; while limiting visitors can help reduce exposure to others, completing the medication course is more critical. Choice D is not relevant to tuberculosis home care instructions.
3. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?
- A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day
- B. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest
- C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet
- D. Encourage the client to increase activity levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.
4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
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