Nursing Elites

1. A client is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Inhale rapidly through the mouth after pressing down on the inhaler
• B. Exhale completely before pressing down on the inhaler
• C. Hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling
• D. Inhale slowly while pressing down on the inhaler

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling when using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. This action ensures proper medication absorption in the lungs. Inhaling rapidly (choice A) may cause the medication to impact the mouth/throat rather than the lungs. Exhaling completely before inhalation (choice B) does not optimize medication delivery. Inhaling slowly (choice D) may not allow the medication to reach the lungs effectively.

2. A client with an acute myocardial infarction is concerned about extreme fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Instruct the client to limit all activity until fully rested
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client with acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain independence while considering the need for rest to prevent overexertion. Instructing the client to limit all activity until fully rested (Choice A) may hinder independence by promoting inactivity. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks (Choice C) does not promote the client's independence. Asking the client's family to assist with self-care (Choice D) may not foster the client's self-reliance and may not always be feasible.

3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

4. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)?

• A. Antibiotic Therapy
• B. Hydration
• C. Pain Management
• D. Patient Education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing and managing a patient with a suspected UTI, the priority is to start antibiotic therapy to treat the infection. Antibiotics are crucial in eliminating the bacteria causing the UTI. While hydration is important to help flush out the bacteria, pain management can help alleviate discomfort but is not the primary treatment. Patient education is vital for prevention and management but is not the immediate intervention required for a suspected UTI.

5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
• B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
• D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

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