ATI LPN
ATI Pediatric Medications Test
1. Which behavior is most indicative that a 2-year-old is experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety because his parents cannot stay all day at the hospital with him?
- A. He withdraws from the nursing staff.
- B. He cries when his parents leave.
- C. He lies quietly in bed.
- D. He cries when his parents arrive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most indicative behavior of a 2-year-old experiencing the initial phase of separation anxiety due to parents not staying all day at the hospital is crying when his parents leave. This behavior is a common manifestation of separation anxiety in children, as they struggle with the absence of their primary attachment figures. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative because withdrawing from the nursing staff, lying quietly in bed, or crying when parents arrive do not specifically demonstrate the distress caused by separation from parents, which is the hallmark of separation anxiety in children.
2. A new mother asks the nurse when she should begin to breastfeed her newborn. The nurse's best response is:
- A. Within the first half-hour after birth
- B. After the newborn's first bath
- C. When the newborn begins to cry
- D. After administering vitamin K
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Initiating breastfeeding within the first half-hour after birth is crucial for successful breastfeeding and bonding, as recommended by the World Health Organization. This early initiation helps establish breastfeeding and supports the newborn's health by providing colostrum, the nutrient-rich first milk. Choice B, 'After the newborn's first bath,' is incorrect because initiating breastfeeding should not be delayed after birth. Choice C, 'When the newborn begins to cry,' is incorrect as it does not promote timely initiation of breastfeeding. Choice D, 'After administering vitamin K,' is incorrect because breastfeeding initiation should not be delayed for this procedure.
3. Which pain assessment tool is most appropriate for a 3-month-old hospitalized with a fractured femur?
- A. FLACC scale
- B. Poker chip tool
- C. Number scale
- D. Visual analog scale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The FLACC scale, which stands for Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability, is specifically designed for nonverbal patients like infants and young children. It assesses pain based on observable behaviors such as facial expressions, leg movement, activity level, cry, and the ability to be consoled. In this case, a 3-month-old infant who is unable to communicate verbally would best be assessed using the FLACC scale to determine the level of pain experienced due to a fractured femur. The Poker chip tool, Number scale, and Visual analog scale are not suitable for nonverbal infants and young children as they rely on self-reporting or cognitive abilities that are not yet developed at this age.
4. Use the scenario to answer questions 13-18. A patient has come to the OPD with complaints of anaesthesia and paresthesia of the lower limbs. After laboratory investigations, the doctor has diagnosed the patient with Diabetes Mellitus but failed to specify whether it is type 1 or type 2. Onset of Type 1 diabetes is characterized by:
- A. Occurs after pubertal onset in the majority of cases
- B. Occurs when parents are poor
- C. Occurs at an early age
- D. Occurs after childbirth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes typically occurs after pubertal onset. This form of diabetes is most commonly diagnosed in individuals under the age of 30, with a peak incidence in the mid-teens to early 20s. Puberty is a period of hormonal changes and growth, which can trigger the onset of type 1 diabetes due to the stress it places on the body's insulin-producing cells.
5. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?
- A. Vertex presentation
- B. Maternal hypertension
- C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
- D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.
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