ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing
1. When assessing a client with chronic pain, which of the following is the most reliable indicator of the client's pain?
- A. The client's vital signs.
- B. The client's self-report of pain.
- C. The client's body language.
- D. The client's medical history.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's self-report of pain is the most reliable indicator of pain. Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's self-report provides direct insight into their perception of pain intensity, quality, and impact on daily life. Vital signs, body language, and medical history can offer additional information but may not accurately reflect the client's actual pain experience. Therefore, relying on the client's self-report ensures a more accurate assessment of their pain and helps in tailoring appropriate interventions and treatment plans.
2. A client has a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Apply a heat lamp to the area for 20 minutes each day.
- B. Change the dressing on the heel every 12 hours.
- C. Apply a transparent dressing over the heel.
- D. Use a water pressure mattress.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying a transparent dressing over the heel is beneficial as it can protect the ulcer from friction and shear, and allow for continuous observation of the wound. This intervention promotes healing and prevents further damage to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because applying heat can increase the risk of tissue damage and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as changing the dressing every 12 hours may disrupt the wound healing process and is not necessary for a stage 1 pressure ulcer. Choice D is incorrect because using a water pressure mattress is not a specific intervention for a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel.
3. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?
- A. Verify the client’s identification using two identifiers.
- B. Document the medication administration in the client’s chart immediately.
- C. Return any unused portion of the medication to the pharmacy.
- D. Have a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Pallor.
- C. Hypertension.
- D. Jaundice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.
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