what should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20dropsml
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ATI LPN

Pediatric ATI Proctored Test

1. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

2. Which of the following findings is abnormal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A heart rate of 80 beats per minute in a 3-month-old infant is abnormally low for that age group and could indicate underlying health issues. The normal heart rate for a 3-month-old infant is typically higher, around 100-150 beats per minute. Therefore, this finding stands out as abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choice A is not necessarily abnormal in a newly born infant as irregular breathing patterns can be common during the neonatal period. Choice C falls within the normal respiratory rate range for a 2-year-old child, which is around 20-30 breaths per minute. Choice D reflects a systolic blood pressure value within the normal range for a 10-year-old child, which is typically around 90-110 mm Hg.

3. When using the Ballard gestational assessment tool on a newborn, which of the following tests should be performed after the first hour of birth, allowing the newborn to recover from the stress of birth?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Arm recoil. Arm recoil is slower in healthy but fatigued newborns after birth, making it best elicited after the first hour of birth when the baby has had time to recover from the stress of birth. This assessment helps evaluate neuromuscular maturity in newborns and is more accurate when performed after the initial recovery period. The other choices, Square window sign, Scarf sign, and Popliteal angle, are not specifically assessed using the Ballard gestational assessment tool and do not relate to the recovery period after birth.

4. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.

5. Your assessment of a newborn reveals cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What should you do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a newborn with cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min, the priority action is to begin artificial ventilations. A heart rate below 100 beats/min with cyanosis indicates a need for immediate respiratory support to improve oxygenation. Drying the infant briskly or suctioning the mouth may be necessary later but are not the initial priority. Chest compressions are not indicated as the heart rate is above 60 beats/min.

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