Nursing Elites

1. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

3. What is the most likely cause of a sudden onset of respiratory distress in a 5-year-old child with no fever?

• A. Infection of the lower airways.
• B. A progressive upper airway infection.
• C. Inflammation of the upper airway.
• D. A foreign body airway obstruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sudden onset of respiratory distress in a child without fever is most likely due to a foreign body airway obstruction. This obstruction can rapidly lead to difficulty breathing, stridor, and other signs of respiratory distress without necessarily causing a fever. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent further complications and ensure the child's airway remains clear.

4. An 18-month-old child presents with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

• A. High risk for altered body temperature - hyperthermia
• B. Ineffective breathing pattern
• C. Ineffective individual coping
• D. Knowledge deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the child is showing signs of respiratory distress, such as nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an increased respiratory rate. These are indicative of an ineffective breathing pattern. The child's compromised respiratory function requires immediate attention and intervention, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D do not address the respiratory distress the child is experiencing and are not the priority in this situation.

5. When assessing a 6-year-old boy with pain in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which action should be performed first?

• A. Avoiding palpation of the abdomen.
• B. Palpating the right lower quadrant first.
• C. Auscultating bowel sounds for 2 minutes.
• D. Palpating the left upper quadrant first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the left upper quadrant first is the correct approach when assessing abdominal pain in a child. This method helps to minimize causing additional discomfort to the child and allows for a more accurate assessment of their reaction to palpation. By starting on the left upper quadrant, you can gauge the child's pain response before moving to the area of complaint, which may be more sensitive. This approach is essential for a thorough and less distressing abdominal assessment in pediatric patients.

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