what should a nurse monitor in a client with constipation
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor in a client with constipation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a stool softener is the appropriate intervention for constipation. Stool softeners help to soften the stool, making it easier to pass and relieving constipation without straining the client. Monitoring bowel sounds (Choice A) may be relevant for other gastrointestinal issues but is not specifically indicated for constipation. Increasing activity (Choice B) can be helpful in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for constipation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can worsen constipation by reducing mobility and promoting inactivity.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about cancer prevention. The nurse should include that frequent consumption of which of the following foods increases the risk for developing cancer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamb. Lamb is high in saturated fat, which is linked to an increased risk of developing cancer. Choice B (Poultry) is a lean protein source and is not associated with an increased cancer risk. Choice C (Tuna) is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which have anti-inflammatory properties that may reduce cancer risk. Choice D (Beef) is also high in saturated fat like lamb, making it a poor choice for cancer prevention.

3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.

5. What are the principles of aseptic technique in wound care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing.' Aseptic technique in wound care requires the use of sterile gloves to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect as the method of application does not primarily focus on maintaining asepsis. Choice C, while important for infection control, is not specific to aseptic technique in wound care. Choice D is incorrect because using a single clean glove does not ensure the level of sterility needed for aseptic wound care.

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