ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What should a healthcare provider monitor in a client with constipation?
- A. Monitor the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours
- B. Increase the client's activity to stimulate bowel movement
- C. Encourage the client to use a stool softener
- D. Encourage the client to rest in bed until constipation resolves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a stool softener is the appropriate intervention for constipation. Stool softeners help to soften the stool, making it easier to pass and relieving constipation without straining the client. Monitoring bowel sounds (Choice A) may be relevant for other gastrointestinal issues but is not specifically indicated for constipation. Increasing activity (Choice B) can be helpful in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for constipation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can worsen constipation by reducing mobility and promoting inactivity.
2. What is the correct procedure for inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- A. Measure the tube and insert with lubrication
- B. Insert with lubrication and no measurement
- C. Insert without lubrication and secure it
- D. Insert with lubrication and check placement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct procedure for inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube involves measuring the tube to ensure the appropriate length for insertion and using lubrication to reduce discomfort and aid in smooth insertion. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the tube is essential for proper placement. Choice C is incorrect as lubrication helps in easing the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as checking the placement comes after insertion and should not be done simultaneously with the insertion process.
3. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
- B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
- C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
- D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.
4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
- B. Notify the provider and discontinue the IV infusion
- C. Increase the IV flow rate to clear the blockage
- D. Elevate the extremity and apply an ice pack
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phlebitis, inflammation of a vein, is a complication that requires prompt action. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a warm compress, increasing the IV flow rate, or applying an ice pack are not appropriate interventions for phlebitis. Warm compresses may worsen inflammation, increasing the IV flow rate could exacerbate the condition, and ice packs are not recommended for phlebitis.
5. Which of the following is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Irritability
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy because it can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing due to mucus accumulation, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (Choice A) and hypotension (Choice B) are not typically early indicators of the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. Confusion (Choice D) is also not a direct early indicator of the need for suctioning in this context.
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