what is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

2. What are the key considerations for managing a patient with COPD?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include oxygen therapy, which is essential to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels. While bronchodilators are commonly used to manage COPD symptoms, they are not the primary consideration. Smoking cessation is crucial in preventing further damage but is not a direct management consideration. Pulmonary rehabilitation is beneficial for improving exercise capacity and quality of life but is not as crucial as ensuring adequate oxygen therapy.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

4. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

5. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

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