Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with specific phobia?

• A. To eliminate the phobic response completely
• B. To increase the patient's exposure to the feared object
• C. To help the patient confront and reduce their fear gradually
• D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with a specific phobia is to help them confront their fear gradually, leading to a reduction in their fear response over time. This gradual exposure helps the individual learn to manage and cope with their phobia, ultimately reducing the intensity of their fear reactions. Choice A is incorrect because while the goal is to reduce the fear response, complete elimination may not always be feasible. Choice B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on increasing exposure but on gradual confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as the therapy aims for long-term reduction rather than immediate relief.

2. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert’s early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with an early and slow onset of schizophrenia typically have a less positive outcome or prognosis. This is because early onset schizophrenia is often associated with a more severe form of the illness and can lead to greater functional impairment in various aspects of life, including academic and social functioning. Therefore, the prognosis for Gilbert, given his presentation and age of onset, would be considered to have a less positive outcome.

3. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

• A. Encouraging the patient to focus on deep breathing exercises.
• B. Encouraging the patient to avoid any physical activity.
• C. Asking the patient to describe their feelings in detail.
• D. Providing the patient with detailed information about panic attacks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack is to encourage them to focus on deep breathing exercises. This intervention helps the patient manage the physiological symptoms of a panic attack by promoting relaxation and reducing hyperventilation, which are common during such episodes. Deep breathing exercises can help regulate breathing patterns and alleviate feelings of anxiety and panic.

4. A charge nurse is conducting a class on therapeutic communication with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following aspects of communication should the nurse identify as a component of verbal communication?

• A. Personal space
• B. Posture
• C. Eye contact
• D. Intonation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verbal communication involves the use of words, tone, and pitch to convey messages. Intonation refers to the variation of pitch in speech, which can convey emotions, attitudes, and emphasize certain points. Therefore, intonation is a key component of verbal communication, making it the correct choice in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are aspects of nonverbal communication. Personal space, posture, and eye contact are important nonverbal cues that contribute to effective communication, but they are not components of verbal communication.

5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a mental health disorder. Which of the following actions should the professional include as a psychobiological intervention?

• A. Assist the client with systematic desensitization therapy
• B. Teach the client appropriate coping mechanisms
• C. Assess the client for comorbid health conditions
• D. Monitor the client for adverse effects of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client for adverse effects of medications is considered a psychobiological intervention because it involves the physiological aspect of mental health treatment. It focuses on the biological impact of medications on the client's mental health condition, emphasizing the interplay between biological and psychological factors in managing mental health disorders. Choices A, B, and C are not psychobiological interventions. Choice A, systematic desensitization therapy, is a psychological intervention aimed at reducing anxiety by gradually exposing the client to feared stimuli. Choice B, teaching appropriate coping mechanisms, is a psychosocial intervention focusing on behavioral strategies to manage stress. Choice C, assessing for comorbid health conditions, pertains to identifying other medical issues that may coexist with the mental health disorder but does not directly address the biological effects of medications on mental health.

Similar Questions