Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary benefit of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for patients with anxiety disorders?

• A. It focuses on the long-term use of medications.
• B. It helps patients understand and change their thought patterns.
• C. It primarily addresses childhood traumas.
• D. It encourages patients to avoid anxiety-provoking situations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary benefit of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for patients with anxiety disorders is that it helps individuals understand and change their thought patterns. By doing so, patients can effectively reduce their anxiety levels by altering their responses to anxious thoughts and situations, leading to improved coping mechanisms and overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because CBT does not focus on the long-term use of medications but rather on changing cognitive patterns. Choice C is incorrect because while CBT may address past experiences, its primary focus is on current thoughts and behaviors. Choice D is incorrect as CBT aims to help patients confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations rather than avoid them.

2. A charge nurse is conducting a class on therapeutic communication with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following aspects of communication should the nurse identify as a component of verbal communication?

• A. Personal space
• B. Posture
• C. Eye contact
• D. Intonation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verbal communication involves the use of words, tone, and pitch to convey messages. Intonation refers to the variation of pitch in speech, which can convey emotions, attitudes, and emphasize certain points. Therefore, intonation is a key component of verbal communication, making it the correct choice in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are aspects of nonverbal communication. Personal space, posture, and eye contact are important nonverbal cues that contribute to effective communication, but they are not components of verbal communication.

3. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Gastrointestinal disturbances
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.

4. A client is undergoing systematic desensitization for an extreme fear of elevators. Which of the following actions should be implemented with this form of therapy?

• A. Demonstrate riding in an elevator, then ask the client to imitate the behavior.
• B. Advise the client to say “stop” out loud every time they begin to feel an anxiety response related to an elevator.
• C. Gradually expose the client to an elevator while practicing relaxation techniques.
• D. Stay with the client in an elevator until the anxiety response diminishes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Systematic desensitization is a type of therapy used to help individuals overcome phobias or anxieties. It involves gradually exposing the client to the feared object or situation, in this case, an elevator, while simultaneously practicing relaxation techniques. This process helps the client associate relaxation with the previously feared stimulus, gradually reducing anxiety levels over time. Choice A is incorrect as it involves imitation rather than gradual exposure. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a verbal response rather than the systematic process of exposure and relaxation. Choice D is incorrect as it does not involve the systematic approach of gradually exposing the client while teaching relaxation techniques.

5. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
• B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Checking for signs of depression
• D. Monitoring for changes in appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

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